Hi everybody.
I'm a bit confused about the use of the present tense of باشیدن. Youssef Saeed in his "Persian: A Comprehensive Grammar" writes: "Conjugating the verb ‘to be’ as mi-bāsham, mi-bāshi, etc. is something you will never hear in spoken Persian, and all writers known for their ‘good’ Persian will avoid it as well, but in the press or in administrative language, you will find this on every page by the dozen."
However, Dari uses it in both its spoken and written forms to express a more permanent/continuous "being condition", e.g.
Considering that Dari is more conservative and has retained several older forms of the language, could this be a remnant of some earlier form of Persian? I looked around but couldn't find anything about this aspect.
I'm a bit confused about the use of the present tense of باشیدن. Youssef Saeed in his "Persian: A Comprehensive Grammar" writes: "Conjugating the verb ‘to be’ as mi-bāsham, mi-bāshi, etc. is something you will never hear in spoken Persian, and all writers known for their ‘good’ Persian will avoid it as well, but in the press or in administrative language, you will find this on every page by the dozen."
However, Dari uses it in both its spoken and written forms to express a more permanent/continuous "being condition", e.g.
تا چند بجه (ساعت) خانه میباشین؟
هر کس تا که قرضدار اس(ت) پریشان میباشه
وطن ما افغانستان است و پایتخت آن کابل میباشد
هر کس تا که قرضدار اس(ت) پریشان میباشه
وطن ما افغانستان است و پایتخت آن کابل میباشد
Considering that Dari is more conservative and has retained several older forms of the language, could this be a remnant of some earlier form of Persian? I looked around but couldn't find anything about this aspect.