Declension of καθόλου

[Apollodorus]

Declension of καθόλου?

Sources like Wiktionary and Babiniotis seem to have καθόλου only as adverb. I don’t know why there is no mention of the noun καθόλου (“general, universal”) but I’m assuming it is uninflected as in Aristotle, etc.?

Ευχαριστώ!

 

[ioanell]

Declension of καθόλου?

Καθόλου (< AG καθ' ὅλου) has always and everywhere been uniflected. Initially an adverb (on the whole, in general), in the Logic of Aristotle was also used as an adjective (general, universal), usage also working in MG, though in a more scholarly speech. Beyond Babiniotis, two other reliable dictionaries (Λεξικό Τριανταφυλλίδη & Λεξικό της Ακαδημίας) characterize "καθόλου" as an adjective as well. Example: H καθόλου (=γενική/συνολική) συμπεριφορά του ήταν άψογη (Λεξικό Τριανταφυλλίδη). Although used as an adjective determining "συμπεριφορά" in the example above, its meaning is quite the same with that of the adverb and could be replaced with that, as εν γένει, γενικά, συνολικά, that is "H καθόλου συμπεριφορά του ήταν άψογη=Η εν γένει συμπεριφορά του ήταν άψογη" or "H συμπεριφορά του γενικά ήταν άψογη".

 

[Apollodorus]

... in the Logic of Aristotle was also used as an adjective (general, universal), usage also working in MG, though in a more scholarly speech ...

If I understand correctly, MG uses καθόλου as an adjective but not as a noun (“το καθόλου”)? Is there another word used for English “universal” – as a philosophical principle that applies universally or common property found in a class of particulars, etc., “καθολικός όρος” (French universel, German Universalie)? And can something like *καθέκαστον (< AG καθ' ἕκαστον) be used for the opposite (“particular”)?

 

[Perseas]

Sources like Wiktionary and Babiniotis seem to have καθόλου only as adverb.

Yes, because in Modern Greek it means "at all" (affirmative clause) or "not at all" (negative clause).

In its more learned version "καθόλου" is used as an adjective: Η καθόλου (=συνολική) συμπεριφορά του ήταν άψογη (His overall behaviour was impeccable). You just have to use it in the sentence the way adjectives are used.
A more simple example of how an adverb ("επάνω") is used as an adjective: Το επάνω διαμέρισμα είναι μεγάλο (The upstairs apartment is nice).

If I understand correctly, MG uses καθόλου as an adjective but not as a noun (“το καθόλου”)? Is there another word used for English “universal” – as a philosophical principle that applies universally or common property found in a class of particulars, etc., “καθολικός όρος” (French universel, German Universalie)? And can something like *καθέκαστον (< AG καθ' ἕκαστον) be used for the opposite (“particular”)?

Technically, every part of speech may be used as a noun:
-Στη δημοκρατία κυβερνούν οι πολλοί. (adjective)
-Μόνο το σήμερα τον απασχολεί. (adverb)
-Το ότι απέτυχε δεν εξηγείται. (clause)
In this view, even "καθόλου" may be used as a noun.

"Καθολικός όρος" does indeed translate "universal term", also "παγκόσμιος, γενικός", depending on context and circumstance.
Yes, "καθ' έκαστον" is the opposite of "καθ' όλου", but it's obvious you don't use these terms in everyday discussions.

"Καθόλου" in two online dictionaries:
Παράλληλη αναζήτηση

 

[Apollodorus]

Technically, every part of speech may be used as a noun: -Στη δημοκρατία κυβερνούν οι πολλοί. (adjective) -Μόνο το σήμερα τον απασχολεί. (adverb) -Το ότι απέτυχε δεν εξηγείται. (clause) In this view, even "καθόλου" may be used as a noun.

That was what I was trying to get at. 🙂

The term does seem to have started as an adverb. Plato doesn’t have a word for “universal,” but he does use the adverbial phrase “κατὰ ὅλου.” This has been variously translated as “generally,” “in a general way,” or “as a whole,” e.g., “… κατὰ ὅλου εἰπὼν ἀρετῆς πέρι ὅτι ἐστίν …” (“… tell me what virtue is in a general way/as a whole…”) (Meno 77a6). Plato here is asking for the characteristics common to all virtues, i.e., universals, to be examined.

Aristotle seems to use the same phrase as a substantive, “καθ’ ὅλου/καθὅλου.” He says, “λέγω δὲ καθόλου μὲν ὃ ἐπὶ πλειόνων πέφυκε κατηγορεῖσθαι, καθ' ἕκαστον δὲ ὃ μή” (“I call universal (καθὅλου) what is naturally predicated of more than one thing and particular (καθ' ἕκαστον) that which is not”) (Περὶ Ἑρμηνείας 17a39-40).

Wikipedia refers to universals as “τα καθόλου ή καθολικοί όροι” (Πρόβλημα των καθόλου – Βικιπαίδεια). It isn’t entirely clear whether the word here is an adjective or a noun but it does seem to have a substantival function. Is or can MG καθόλου be used as a noun in this context?

 

[ioanell]

Is or can MG καθόλου be used as a noun in this context?

In this context (as Aristotle's one), no, it is'nt and it can't be used in MG.

If I understand correctly, MG uses καθόλου as an adjective but not as a noun (“το καθόλου”)?

Καθόλου as a noun in MG is rather rarely used, in the meaning of τίποτε (Notice the article το in front of καθόλου, turning it into a noun), e.g. Aπό το λίγο ως το καθόλου υπάρχει διαφορά=From "little" to "nothing" there is a difference.

Is there another word used for English “universal” – as a philosophical principle that applies universally or common property found in a class of particulars, etc., “καθολικός όρος” (French universel, German Universalie)?

Apart of καθολικός see παγκόσμιος, οικουμενικός, γενικός. Even ολοκληρωτικός, συλλογικός, συνολικός with usage depending, of course, on the context used.

And can something like *καθέκαστον (< AG καθ' ἕκαστον) be used for the opposite (“particular”)?

MG: In MG there is no such word (in singular, although you might encounter it in an isolated monograph), but there is the word τα καθέκαστα [< med. τὰ καθ΄ ἕκαστα] in the meaning: details, particulars of a case or an event. Example: Μάς περιέγραψε το περιστατικό με (όλα) τα καθέκαστα=He described the event in every detail.
If you're looking for an opposite of καθολικός in MG, see ειδικός, μερικός, επιμέρους.

AG: τὸ/τὰ καθ᾽ἕκαστον, τὸ/τὰ κατὰ μέρος και τὸ/τὰ/οἱ ἐπὶ μέρους are opposites of καθόλου.

It isn’t entirely clear whether the word here is an adjective or a noun but it does seem to have a substantival function.

I could agree with you on that it does seem to have a substantival function as I think that the sentence "ἡ μὲν γὰρ ποίησις μᾶλλον τὰ καθόλου (τὰ κ. = universal truths), ἡ δ᾽ ἱστορία τὰ καθ᾽ ἕκαστον λέγει" advocates for that (Aristot. Poet. 1451b).

 

[Apollodorus]

I could agree with you on that it does seem to have a substantival function as I think that the sentence "ἡ μὲν γὰρ ποίησις μᾶλλον τὰ καθόλου (τὰ κ. = universal truths), ἡ δ᾽ ἱστορία τὰ καθ᾽ ἕκαστον λέγει" advocates for that (Aristot. Poet. 1451b).

Yes, the way I see it, phrases like “το πρόβλημα των καθόλου,” “η θεωρία του Αριστοτέλη για τα καθόλου,” etc. certainly imply that “τα καθόλου” is a noun designating universal entities (καθολικές οντότητες). I can’t really see what else it could be. That’s why I thought if καθόλου is “apparently” used as a noun (at least as a technical term in philosophy, mathematics, or what have you), there wouldn’t be any harm if dictionaries stated this. Of course, if it’s used clandestinely, then it’s a different matter 🙂

In any case, it still leaves the question as to what noun MG uses for French universel or German Universalie (< Middle Latin universale, universalia) ....

 

[ioanell]

if καθόλου is “apparently” used as a noun (at least as a technical term in philosophy, mathematics, or what have you), there wouldn’t be any harm if dictionaries stated this.

In any case, it still leaves the question as to what noun MG uses for French universel or German Universalie (< Middle Latin universale, universalia) ....

As long as you are obviously interested in knowing the rendering of the Aristotelian τὰ καθόλου (universals - universalia) in a philosophical sense within MG, in order that you get more help in your query I think you should consult some specific dictionaries (of philosophical terms) found easily on the web after a relevant search under the title Λεξικό φιλοσοφικών όρων. Anyway, the usual renderings of the Aristotelian τὰ καθόλου in these dictionaries -drawn, of course, from various philosophical works- are τα καθολικά, γενικές έννοιες, γενικές ιδέες, γενικοί όροι.

 

[Apollodorus]

Actually, my main interest wasn't Aristotle. From what I see, most European languages have the noun “(the) universal” (Italian l’universale, French l’universel, German die Universalie) in the sense of universal property, principle or entity.

The online Academic Dictionaries and Encyclopedias (en.academic.com) has:

"καθόλου

1. (σε ερωτήσεις) λίγο, κάπως («μέ θυμήθηκες καθόλου;»)

2. (έναρθρο) τα καθόλου

τα γενικά"

I take this to mean that when preceded by the article “το/τα” (sg./pl.), “καθόλου” is used as a noun meaning “the universal(s)/general(s).”

Cheers, anyway.

 

[ioanell]

The online Academic Dictionaries and Encyclopedias (en.academic.com) has:

"καθόλου

1. (σε ερωτήσεις) λίγο, κάπως («μέ θυμήθηκες καθόλου;»)

2. (έναρθρο) τα καθόλου

τα γενικά"

Under the title νεοελλ. (=Modern Greek) the above section of this dictionary has
"2. (έναρθρο) τα καθόλου=τα γενικά". This is completely wrong. There's no such meaning in Modern Greek. No Greek dictionary, whatsoever, gives such a meaning in MG. As said above and as denoted under the title αρχ. (Ancient Greek) of the same dictionary, this is the AG meaning of "τὰ καθόλου=τα γενικά, οι γενικές αλήθειες"

I take this to mean that when preceded by the article “το/τα” (sg./pl.), “καθόλου” is used as a noun meaning “the universal(s)/general(s).”

Beware of the mistake of misinterpreting and mistranslating phrases from works, like “το πρόβλημα των καθόλου” or “η θεωρία του Αριστοτέλη για τα καθόλου” written in Modern Greek, which as philosophical ones use τα καθόλου with the AG Aristotelian sense “the universal(s)/general(s) < Lat. universalia”. As explained in #6 above the only case of MG word καθόλου being used as a noun is when preceded by the article το (sg. and NOT pl.) in the meaning of "τίποτε". 🙂

 

[Apollodorus]

Well, that’s why I don’t usually trust dictionaries, especially online ones! 🙂

But do you mean that “το πρόβλημα των καθόλου” is a mistranslation into MG (e.g. the Greek Wikipedia article a mistranslation of the English)? Or that MG texts discussing AG “τα καθόλου” are using the AG phrase that shouldn’t be used in MG?

And what would be the best way to describe the AG phrase if it has a substantival function but isn’t supposed to be a noun?

 

[ioanell]

But do you mean that “το πρόβλημα των καθόλου” is a mistranslation into MG (e.g. the Greek Wikipedia article a mistranslation of the English)? Or that MG texts discussing AG “τα καθόλου” are using the AG phrase that shouldn’t be used in MG?

Terminating here my contribution to this thread, since I have no more to offer, I am simply saying that:
1. in Modern Greek the only case of the word καθόλου being used as a noun is when preceded by the article το (sg. and NOT pl.) in the meaning of "τίποτε" and no other meaning.
2. In philosophical works written in MG, when the authors come to use and translate into MG the Aristotelian τὰ καθόλου, they render it with MG phrases -in a strictly philosophical sense- as “τα γενικά, γενικές αλήθειες, γενικές ιδέες, γενικές έννοιες, γενικοί όροι, γενικές οντότητες, γενικές ιδιότητες”, which are the equivalent of “universals, generals, as rendering M. Latin "universalia”. This, of course, doesn’t mean that when the above phrases are used (and they do, in fact) in other -of non-philosophical nature- Modern Greek texts, they are considered equivalent of, and interchangeable with, the AG τὰ καθόλου. Chears! 🙂

 

[Perseas]

Declension of καθόλου?

"καθόλου" (or "καθ' ὅλου" in Ancient Greek) is uninflected, as already said, but it's obvious that it came from preposition "κατά" + "ὅλου", the genitive of the adjective "ὅλος".

Moreover, in classical Greek the preposition "κατά" could be accompanied by constituents in genitive or accusative. For example:
a) genitive: κατά γῆς (= under the ground); λέγειν κατά τινος (=speak against someone); καθ' ἁπάντων (=with respect to everyone).
καθ' ὅλου obviously falls into this case.

b) accusative: καθ' ἡμέραν (=per day, every day); κατά τούς νόμους (=according to the laws); κατά κράτος (=by force).

 

[Apollodorus]

Under the title νεοελλ. (=Modern Greek) the above section of this dictionary has
"2. (έναρθρο) τα καθόλου=τα γενικά". This is completely wrong. There's no such meaning in Modern Greek. No Greek dictionary, whatsoever, gives such a meaning in MG. As said above and as denoted under the title αρχ. (Ancient Greek) of the same dictionary, this is the AG meaning of "τὰ καθόλου=τα γενικά, οι γενικές αλήθειες"

It looks like the online LSJ has the same entry as Academic Dictionaries and Encyclopedias:

καθόλου - Ancient Greek (LSJ)

νεοελλ.
1. (σε ερωτήσεις) λίγο, κάπως («μέ θυμήθηκες καθόλου;»)
2. (έναρθρο) τα καθόλου
τα γενικά

I don't know who borrowed from whom, but this may be the source of the belief that MG uses "τα καθόλου" in the sense of "τα γενικά". Something seems to be wrong somewhere ...