demand that he do / should do / does

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franmadrid

Senior Member
spanish madrid
Are these three sentences correct? If so, could anybody explain the slight difference between them? And which one is more common and which one is more formal?
Thanks in advance
1- I demand that he apologize
2- I demand that he should apologize
3- I demand that he apologizes
 
  • language-learner

    Senior Member
    England and English
    1- I demand that he apologize. This is not correct, because apologize needs to be plural.

    2- I demand that he should apologize - This is correct

    3 - I demand that he apologizes - This is correct

    Also, are you speaking English or American English? In English (UK), we spell it apologise, but apologize is American.

    :)
     

    iskndarbey

    Senior Member
    US, English
    1- I demand that he apologize. This is not correct, because apologize needs to be plural. I assume you mean needs to be singular. In any case, you are wrong; apologize here should be in the subjunctive mood. This sentence is correct.

    2- I demand that he should apologize - This is correct I would never say this under any circumstances. It sounds very strange.

    3 - I demand that he apologizes - This is correct People occasionally say this, although sentence 1 is more common and is what all grammar books will recommend.

    Also, are you speaking English or American English? In English (UK), we spell it apologise, but apologize is American.

    :)
     

    franmadrid

    Senior Member
    spanish madrid
    Thanks for your response. Well I tried to use Br.English but forgot to use "s" instead of "z".
    Yes, I know the third person singular needs that "s". I was just wondering about the use of the "subjuntive". I took that example from a grammar book, I only changed the tense of "demand". The original example is: "I demanded that he apologize". Another example is:
    "I insist that something be done / should be done"
     

    language-learner

    Senior Member
    England and English
    Originally Posted by language-learner
    1- I demand that he apologize. This is not correct, because apologize needs to be plural. I assume you mean needs to be singular. In any case, you are wrong; apologize here should be in the subjunctive mood. This sentence is correct. No-one would say this, and I meant that apologise is singular compared to apologises that is plural.

    2- I demand that he should apologize - This is correct I would never say this under any circumstances. It sounds very strange.

    3 - I demand that he apologizes - This is correct People occasionally say this, although sentence 1 is more common and is what all grammar books will recommend. I don't know what it's like where you live, but in England sentence 3 is much more common and sounds far more natural than sentence 1. Just because a grammar book recommends sentence 1, it doesn't mean it's the right sentence to use, as speaking a language is about fluency, not sticking to grammar books.


    Also, are you speaking English or American English? In English (UK), we spell it apologise, but apologize is American.
     

    language-learner

    Senior Member
    England and English
    I insist that something be done / should be done

    Neither are very natural.

    I suggest that something is done is best.
     

    iskndarbey

    Senior Member
    US, English
    In America sentence 1 is far more common than sentence 3. By the way, 'apologizes' is singular while 'apologize' is plural, at least in the indicative mood.
     

    Cracker Jack

    Senior Member
    Are these three sentences correct? If so, could anybody explain the slight difference between them? And which one is more common and which one is more formal?
    Thanks in advance
    1- I demand that he apologize
    2- I demand that he should apologize
    3- I demand that he apologizes
    These are literal translation of ''Pido que se disculpe.''

    In English however, the structure is different in such a way that there is no subordinate clause but an infinitive prepositional phrase.

    In which case, the translation should be:

    I ask him to apologize.

    However if the sentence is ''Exijo que se disculpe.''

    I demand him to apologize.
     

    franmadrid

    Senior Member
    spanish madrid
    Well thank you both, but I didn´t mean to put up this fight, please don´t get mad!!!
    What I must conclude is that the subjuntive in those expressions is, by far, much more used in America than in Britain. But I took those first two examples from a British Grammar Book. And the 3rd, which I made up myself, turns out to be the way people say it in Britain.
    Thanks anyway, and if anybody else wants to give their point of view, please help me!
     

    María Madrid

    Banned
    Spanish Spain
    I meant that apologise is singular compared to apologises that is plural.
    Could you please explain this?

    Apologises is used with he/she/it, this is third person and singular. How can it possibly be plural? We and they are plural and you certainly don't add an s to the verb to express plural.

    On the other hand I think Fran is actually asking about the subjunctive mood, so sentences like "I suggest (that) he (would) go" are perfectly correct and are not replaced with I suggest him to go. Saludos, :)
     
    Last edited:

    Sprache

    Senior Member
    English/inglés
    1- I demand that he apologize. This is not correct, because apologize needs to be plural.

    2- I demand that he should apologize - This is correct

    3 - I demand that he apologizes - This is correct

    Also, are you speaking English or American English? In English (UK), we spell it apologise, but apologize is American.

    :)
    I disagree. Number 1 is definitely correct and it's more common (at least here) than the other two. Sentence 2 sounds rather awkward, but okay I guess. The third one sounds bad.
     

    salom

    Senior Member
    English USA
    Estoy totalmente de acuerdo con la respuesta anterior y la explicación de Crackerjack. La primera es la más correcta en EEUU. Usando el infinitivo queda mejor. Un beso a los madriles.
     

    franmadrid

    Senior Member
    spanish madrid
    Estoy totalmente de acuerdo con la respuesta anterior y la explicación de Crackerjack. La primera es la más correcta en EEUU. Usando el infinitivo queda mejor. Un beso a los madriles.
    Gracias por tu respuesta salom, y por tu beso a los madriles :)
     

    Irma2011

    Senior Member
    Spanish - Spain
    Espero que no consulten este hilo muchos estudiantes de inglés con poco conocimiento de su gramática. En él se dicen cosas que volverían loco al más pintado. ¡Y por algún hablante nativo, que (es la única explicación) debe haber perdido la práctica de su lengua! Ésta no era una cuestión tan difícil.
     

    Sleptikal

    Senior Member
    Español — Chileno
    Can you say "I demand for him to apologize"?
    Yes, this also works; often translated as 'demando para que se disculpe.' It's another way to phrase the subjunctive but less used.

    Writing 'I demand that he apologises' is saying 'demando que se disculpa.' The subjunctive is required when putting a 'que' before the verb.
     
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