deny doing OR having done something

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vdora

Member
Hungarian
Hi,

Could you tell me which is correct? Maybe both are? Do they mean the same?

He denies stealing the money.
He denies having stolen the money.

I'd like to have the meaning that he denies now that he's stolen the money somewhen before. However, do I have to use the perfect if I want to express the difference in time, or is it evident even from the first sentence?

Thanks
 
  • Rodrigo C.

    Member
    Español
    1.He denies stealing the money= He doesn't want to steal the money.
    2.He denies having stolen the money= He's saying that he didn't steal the money.
    For what you want to say, I'd definitely go for the second one. +)
     

    Copyright

    Senior Member
    American English
    He denies stealing the money.
    He denies having stolen the money.

    I'd like to have the meaning that he denies now that he's stolen the money somewhen before. However, do I have to use the perfect if I want to express the difference in time, or is it evident even from the first sentence?
    Both can refer to present denial and past theft. If he's denying stealing now, we know the theft has already taken place.
     
    Last edited:

    Aardvark01

    Senior Member
    British English (Midlands)
    Both express the idea you want because in both sentences "denies" is present tense.

    Note that the forum rules state that up to four lines of context should be provided. It is not possible to say that one sentence is better/more appropriate than the other without knowing the context in which the sentence is used.
     
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