did no more to-v than to-v

0901chris

Member
korean
"When he discovered the planet Uranus, he did no more to publicize it than to mention it to a friend."

I cannot grasp that sentence. I think it's because of "to mention it". I know "no more X than Y" structure. For example, the following sentence perfectly makes sense:
"The occupation of the Gaza Strip by Egypt and Judea and Samaria by Jordan from 1948 to 1967 did no more to change its borders than has Russia’s equally unprovoked aggression against Ukraine today.”

Someone told me that the sentence in question meant "as though he didn't tell his friend about the discovery, nor did he publicized it." If this is correct, can you tell me how this is educed from the original one?
 
  • 0901chris

    Member
    korean
    I assume you were mentioning the last quote. That's from the translation by one of the Korean Eng teachers, who I don't know.
    (The first one from a passage on my studying material, the second one from google)

    After reading your response, I realized that the structure in the first quote is not the same as "no more X than Y" but rather simply "no more than" structure.

    Now I've got another question, though.
    "He did no more to publicize it than (to mention/mentioned/mentioning/mention) it to a friend." Which are acceptable and which are not? I find "to mention" grammatically odd.
     
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