difference between "much more" and "much'

Banet Eagle

Senior Member
Arabic
Hi all,

I have written the following sentence to compare some skin products:

"These skin care products will be absorbed much more easier and quicker."

I need to know whether "much more easier" has any difference in meaning compared to only "much easier". I know that adding "much" in front of a comparative adjective intensifies the degree of the comparison, so to speak. For example, "much easier" means "a lot easier". However, I don't know whether the addition of "more" adds even more intensity.

I've found real uses of "much more + comparative adj." such as the following, which confirms that it's not a mistake:

-- www.washingtonpost.com
and
-- www.telegraph.co.uk

So, is "more" redundant?

Thank you.
 
  • Biffo

    Senior Member
    English - England
    The first is simply an error - maybe caused by careless editing. The second is reported speech from a German speaker.

    "easier" means "more easy"

    "more easier" means "more more easy" That is not possible in English.

    ________________________________________________________________
    I have heard children say "more easier" but as they grow up they learn not to do so. Some uneducated people might say it.
     

    Greyfriar

    Senior Member
    "These skin care products will be absorbed much more easier and quicker."

    Hello.

    Personally I would never use 'much more easier' (but it could be me). In your sentence I would say, '....... much more easily and quickly.'

    I dislike the idea of intensifying a comparative adjective. I would say that 'more' is redundant, despite your quotes from two worthy newspapers.
     

    Enquiring Mind

    Senior Member
    English - the Queen's
    Hi Banet Eagle, it's not 'The Telegraph' (in your #1) using the construction "it's always much more easier" :cross:, which is non-standard English. This is in italics, and after the red quote marks ". They are quoting Wolfgang Schäuble, whose native language is German.

    As for 'The Washington Post', in that phrase they are using non-standard English.
     

    Biffo

    Senior Member
    English - England
    Hi Banet Eagle, it's not 'The Telegraph' (in your #1) using the construction "it's always much more easier" :cross:, which is non-standard English. This is in italics, and after the red quote marks ". They are quoting Wolfgang Schäuble, whose native language is German.

    As for 'The Washington Post', in that phrase they are using non-standard English.
    As I said in#2 ;)
     

    Banet Eagle

    Senior Member
    Arabic
    Thank you Enquiring Mindand and Biffo. That was my mistake. I shoud've checked the source more thoroughly :). I understand it's an error now or non-standard English. However, thinking about the correction of Greyfriar "much more easily", is it grammatically correct to use "much more" to modify an adverb?
     
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