do people actually say "ta"?

Ta is first attested in English in 1772. It seems to me the likeliest explanation of its origin is that it came from an alteration by infants of thanks and the baby talk expression was adopted by adults, as the Oxford English Dictionary and other dictionaries suggest.
 
  • Ta

    A slang word for Thanks. The word is a result of the heavy Danish influence on the English language. Most people do not realize that the English language roots are really Danish or Jutland. Equiped with this knowledge this word is easy to decipher. The Danish word for Thanks is tak. In Scotland and upper England it was common to drop the k at the end because of the way words were pronounced during the time of old English and Middle English. Hence the slang word "Ta" which should actually be pronounced "TA-k" but over time became "Ta" is really Tak meaning "Thanks"
    I actually think this is the more plausible explanation.
    Same thing happened in Icelandic, it has [θ] at the front of "thank you" like we do in English, yet under Danish influence (where there was an interdental / alveolar change [θ] -> [t]) the word became takk and is now the only way you express thanks, and has been for hundreds of years.

    Weighing that up against people copying the speech of infants, I think this is the most reasonable explanation, but of course no proof either side and it's all just speculation.
    Maybe actually seeing and knowing an almost identical example in another language is influencing me (i.e. Icelandic: Thank you "thakka thyer", Thanks "takk") and knowing a lot about exactly how Danish had a massive massive impact with the Vikings in England, it's clear as day to me that this could easily be the situation. Opposed to the fact I've not heard of a case of baby speech being imitated seriously and used to such an extent that "ta" is, makes me believe the former explanation.
     
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    I actually think this is the more plausible explanation.
    I think so too, Alx.

    I really don't think the idea of thanks >>> ta holds much water. I've never met a baby who simplified /θ/ to /t/ rather than /f/. (That's kind of a 'spelling simplification'.)
    Now if we were going around saying fa rather than ta, that would be a different kettle of whatsits.
     
    I think so too, Alx.

    I really don't think the idea of thanks >>> ta holds much water. I've never met a baby who simplified /θ/ to /t/ rather than /f/. (That's kind of a 'spelling simplification'.)
    Now if we were going around saying fa rather than ta, that would be a different kettle of whatsits.
    I think we're misunderstanding baby talk and adults' reactions to it.

    Babies come out with many sounds starting with a consonant and ending with "a": Ba Da Ga Ha Ka La Ma Na Pa Sa Ta. Sometimes they double them: Mama Papa Nana Dada.

    It's as natural as anything for a baby to have uttered a sound (Ta) when being given something and for an adult to think it was an attempt at "thanks". It probably wasn't, but that's not the point. It's the adults reaction to the sound that's important. Like so much baby talk, it's taken up by the adults when talking to the baby, and it becomes a family code. Multiply that by many families and it becomes part of the culture.
     
    It's as natural as anything for a baby to have uttered a sound (Ta) when being given something and for an adult to think it was an attempt at "thanks". It probably wasn't, but that's not the point. It's the adults reaction to the sound that's important. Like so much baby talk, it's taken up by the adults when talking to the baby, and it becomes a family code. Multiply that by many families and it becomes part of the culture.

    If your example was about "ta ta" (bye bye) then I'd believe you, but there's just too much evidence / plausibility for the other hypothesis for me to believe this baby talk stuff, I can perfectly understand it though, children's articulatory organs aren't fully developed and [θ] is a pretty marked sound across language, so is developed later on in children's phonetics.

    I do know baby's / small children say "ta" for "thanks" but I think that's merely co-incidental. The adult way has a different vowel anyway.
     
    Opposed to the fact I've not heard of a case of baby speech being imitated seriously and used to such an extent that "ta" is, makes me believe the former explanation.

    There is a short article here on the Merriam-Webster Web site which discusses some words adopted into English from baby talk.

    Here's an additional list, not including words in that article, based upon M.-W. etymologies:


    buddy
    icky
    teensy-weensy
    tummy
    tutu (from French baby talk)
    twee
     
    Ref post #102. Is the Urban dictionary a reliable source for etymology? Or meaning, come to that. I think that any credibility it might have had is destroyed fairly quickly if you read down the page for "ta" which Alxmrphi linked to. Do I prefer the diligent researches of the contributors to the Oxford dictionaries, or the idiosyncratic theory of a contributor to the Urban dictionary who wrote "Most people do not realize that the English language roots are really Danish or Jutland." and then goes on to claim a knowledge of how people pronounced words in the time of "old English and Middle English"? Either a time traveller or the owner of the first known gramophone.

    Indeed, I don't suppose many of us do realize that. We think much of the language might have come from Old French, Old German, Latin, Greek, Arabic, Portugese ... etc. Not forgetting Norse and Norman French, of course.
     
    I am usually the first person to scorn Urban Dictionary (for the same reasons I assume you hold), but I can't deny that that first post contains the same opinion I believe.

    There are a few unconfirmed theories (based on sensible statements) about where the Proto-Germanic speakers came from, and certainly the general consensus is Denmark / Germany is where they originated before branching into East (Gothic), North (Old Norse) and West (English, Dutch etc)

    Every book on Old English has the disclaimer that we will never truly know the pronunciation, but a lot of good work has gone into reconstructing the best guesses, the most credible theories, and others have even gone back further to postulate in Proto languages like Germanic, or even further to Proto-Indo-European, historical linguistics isn't something which has a lot of physical evidence available, this is just one aspect, reconstruction of vowels / consonants through sound change laws and evidence in comparative theory from other related languages.

    Indeed, I don't suppose many of us do realize that. We think much of the language might have come from Old French, Old German, Latin, Greek, Arabic, Portugese ... etc. Not forgetting Norse and Norman French, of course.
    People are more than welcome to think those things, but factually all wrong of course.
    But there are those who enjoy reading about etymologies and historical linguistics who do have an idea of general patterns and a clearer idea of what the linguistic truth is.

    I'm not saying I'm right, I'm certainly not saying anyone is wrong, but there is certainly a credible / linguistically sound explanation for the origin of that particular word, consonant loss after a Danish borrowing, vowel lengthening because the word would have been a light monosyllable, and a more prominent northern usage. If the Vikings can give us our plural pronouns why is it so hard to assume it can't have happened with a word that means thank you?
     
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    People are more than welcome to think those things, but factually all wrong of course.
    You have lost me there. I can accept that "ta" may have come to the language from a Nordic root, but I don't see that you can say "factually all wrong" about the language developing from a multitude of sources. I'd hardly argue that English grammar is derived from Latin, which is probably why it is fairly easy for me to understand sentence structure in German and Dutch, but there is an enormous volume of everyday vocabulary that is as Nordic as a Chinaman.
     
    You have lost me there. I can accept that "ta" may have come to the language from a Nordic root, but I don't see that you can say "factually all wrong" about the language developing from a multitude of sources. I'd hardly argue that English grammar is derived from Latin, which is probably why it is fairly easy for me to understand sentence structure in German and Dutch, but there is an enormous volume of everyday vocabulary that is as Nordic as a Chinaman.

    Ok I think there was a mutual misunderstanding.

    I didn't realise you meant aspects of language (i.e. vocabulary), I thought you meant as a development from another one of those sources, if what you were saying is English comes down from the Germanic language family, closely related to Dutch / Frisian and a little less-so German, with a massive Romance vocabulary through French, and multiple other borrowings from most languages of the world, Native American ones, Australian ones (i.e. kangaroo) and many others.. then I agree 100% with you :)

    I suppose the definition of "develop from a multitude of sources" needs to be agreed upon, I'd only say vocabulary, with the exception that French could have played a role in English losing it's morphological noun declensions, but this wasn't a case of making it more like French, but less like the older forms of English.

    but there is an enormous volume of everyday vocabulary that is as Nordic as a Chinaman.

    Agreed!
     
    I grew up in a middle class household in southern England and later moved to the east of England. Ta comes entirely naturally to me, so I assume it was part of my first vocabulary. I use it often and without thinking, usually by way of small thanks or acknowledgement rather than formal gratitude. But it is rare among the English middle classes and I only know one other person who uses it as freely as me.

    The phrase 'ta muchly' is heard but usually from the person who seeks to aggrandise the minutiae of everyday trivia with over-ornate verbalisation and unnecessary formality. The same person might well refer to 'my good lady wife', rather than simply 'my wife'.

    Cheers, being rooted in a drinking salute, also makes me wince a little when used by way of general thanks. I would never use it outside the context of a meeting over a glass.
     
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    I am very familiar with "ta" and "ta very much" which has the abbreviation "TVM". I grew up in Surrey UK and heard it in conversation and on the TV. In Western Canada 5B.C.), where I hail from, the term is used occasionally but I suspect by expats. Maybe more of a generational thing as I am in my 50s and have not heard it used by the younger generation although I think they would be familiar with the term.
     
    Yes, I can confirm that the Brits do say "ta" for "thank you". I have heard it many times in the UK. I would have thought that was more of a Northern England expression but southeners also use it. Just quicker than saying "thank you".

    I'm not sure, but I think you might be right when you say that "ta" is be more commonly used in Northern England than in Southern England, but we do also use it in Scotland. A lot of people on this thread seem to be assuming that "ta" is simply a contraction of "thank you" & is therefore childish & uneducated. This may be true. On the other hand, I have noticed how my Swedish second cousins say "tack" for thank you. I did a little research & discovered that all the Scandinavian languages use something very similar to "ta", with Norwegian "takk" & Danish "tak", while people who speak continental Germanic languages say something more akin to "thank you" e.g. "dank u" in Dutch or "danke" in German. I know this might sound a little far-fetched, but perhaps it is worth reminding ourselves that most of Northern England was a part of the Danelaw for many years i.e. it was heavily colonised by Vikings. It is widely acknowledged that one of the reasons for the North/South divide in England is the fact that Northern England was strongly influenced by Scandinavian culture & language, while Southern England stayed more true to the Anglo Saxon culture of the original English. As for the use of "ta" in Scotland: Scottish English is perhaps more similar to Northern English than Southern English, due to Northern England being much closer to Scotland.
     
    It would be interesting to do a survey on the age-related use of the word. I used it as a child, later dropped it from my vocabulary, and it found its way back in a few years ago. Children and people my age (mid twenties) and older use it frequently, but I don't hear teenagers using it very often.
     
    I'm not sure, but I think you might be right when you say that "ta" is be more commonly used in Northern England than in Southern England, but we do also use it in Scotland. A lot of people on this thread seem to be assuming that "ta" is simply a contraction of "thank you" & is therefore childish & uneducated. This may be true. On the other hand, I have noticed how my Swedish second cousins say "tack" for thank you. I did a little research & discovered that all the Scandinavian languages use something very similar to "ta", with Norwegian "takk" & Danish "tak", while people who speak continental Germanic languages say something more akin to "thank you" e.g. "dank u" in Dutch or "danke" in German. I know this might sound a little far-fetched, but perhaps it is worth reminding ourselves that most of Northern England was a part of the Danelaw for many years i.e. it was heavily colonised by Vikings. It is widely acknowledged that one of the reasons for the North/South divide in England is the fact that Northern England was strongly influenced by Scandinavian culture & language, while Southern England stayed more true to the Anglo Saxon culture of the original English. As for the use of "ta" in Scotland: Scottish English is perhaps more similar to Northern English than Southern English, due to Northern England being much closer to Scotland.
    I'm thinking the Germanic and Scandinavian root sounds likely. That it may not have been mentioned or used in print until the 1700's, as has been mentioned in this thread, could just mean the word was actually used commonly in Britain for many centuries before that (beginning as German, Dutch or Scandinavian) and gradually evolved to 'ta'... only surviving as a first print instance much later on in the cited book because it simply isn't a word anyone thought appropriate to commit to print once it had become a quick, more informal way of expressing thanks in conversation.
     
    I haven't seen anyone yet suggest the most obvious explanation to the use of "Ta".

    A much more "closer to home" explanation is that "Ta" is short for the Scottish Gaelic "Tapadh leat", pronounced "tappa let" or "tappo leet" (depending on who you ask) with a strong TA-sound at the beginning. This would also explain why the use is more frequent the closer to Scotland you get.

    Being a Scandinavian myself, who lived in Yorkshire for a couple of years back in the days, I find the Scandinavian link to the use of "Ta" through the word "tack" to be at least secondary. Perhaps Vikings had an influence on this specific Scottish Gaelic expression, perhaps they have a common root or perhaps its just a coincidence. In any case, I find a closer explanation to be more probable than a far one.
     
    I haven't seen anyone yet suggest the most obvious explanation to the use of "Ta".

    A much more "closer to home" explanation is that "Ta" is short for the Scottish Gaelic "Tapadh leat", pronounced "tappa let" or "tappo leet" (depending on who you ask) with a strong TA-sound at the beginning. This would also explain why the use is more frequent the closer to Scotland you get.

    Interesting. Could be! What is the meaning and usage in situations for "Tapadh leat"?

    Btw, "ta" was used, it seemed, by everyone in a southern UK locale (London) in the early 70s. Maybe it spread from north to south.
     
    When I moved to London from N.America and started hearing "ta", I thought of the old, rather effete-sounding expression "ta ta", meaning 'bye, bye', that I've heard used in old movies from the 30s-40s. Always wondered if there was some kind of relation to "ta", meaning "thanks", but I can't think of any possibility there.
     
    When I moved to London from N.America and started hearing "ta", I thought of the old, rather effete-sounding expression "ta ta", meaning 'bye, bye', that I've heard used in old movies from the 30s-40s. Always wondered if there was some kind of relation to "ta", meaning "thanks", but I can't think of any possibility there.
    Hmm, it's "ta ra" up here in the North. :p
     
    Hmm, it's "ta ra" up here in the North. :p

    I've heard of that variant of "ta ta". In fact, I've never heard "ta ta" in person, just those old flicks. Either one, though, wonder if there's a relation somehow to "ta". Doubt it.
     
    When I moved to London from N.America and started hearing "ta", I thought of the old, rather effete-sounding expression "ta ta", meaning 'bye, bye', that I've heard used in old movies from the 30s-40s. Always wondered if there was some kind of relation to "ta", meaning "thanks", but I can't think of any possibility there.

    We've discussed ta-ta in this thread as well.:) I think you should start from the first page!:D
     
    Of course Ta is used, almost daily in this house.

    For example, I pass an e-mail across to my wife, with the message: "Could you convert this into .doc from .docx?" Now, how am I going to thank her? "Thank you" is far too formal; "Thanks" a little dismissive. So I use the casual but affectionate "Ta!".
     
    Interesting. Could be! What is the meaning and usage in situations for "Tapadh leat"?

    Btw, "ta" was used, it seemed, by everyone in a southern UK locale (London) in the early 70s. Maybe it spread from north to south.

    Its my understanding that "Tapadh leat" is an informal "Thank you", used in the exact same way as "Ta" is used now outside of Scottish Gaelic. I had a link, but I'm not able to post it.

    Another interesting observation is that the spread of "Ta" seems to coincide with the "Acts of Union" between Scotland and England. I imagine that it would have been, at that time, much more socially acceptable to invent/adopt 'slur' of a Union-language than it would have been before. It would also indeed mean that the spread was initially north to south.
     
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    Just curious, how do you know this?

    I don't. That's why I gave myself the out "seems".

    But if it is indeed correct that the spread of "Ta" in/to the English language can be traced to the 1700's, it does coincide with the "Acts of Union". Which I find very interesting for the reasons I mentioned.
     
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    The thing about Ta is it wouldn't ordinarily show up in print and, so, hard to trace its beginnings. You'd have to go around asking old folks over the length and breadth of the land to maybe get a sense of whether or not it's a recent thing or older than a couple generations, and where it showed up first.
     
    The thing about Ta is it wouldn't ordinarily show up in print and, so, hard to trace its beginnings.

    Agreed.

    You'd have to go around asking old folks over the length and breadth of the land to maybe get a sense of whether or not it's a recent thing or older than a couple generations, and where it showed up first.

    Not very practical, since most people from the 1700's and older are presumably dead :D. And the 1700's seems (notice my out) to be the oldest known written source, hinting the use is at least contemporary but possibly older.

    But your point is valid. There is no way for us to know for sure that I'm aware of.
     
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    The thing about Ta is it wouldn't ordinarily show up in print and, so, hard to trace its beginnings. You'd have to go around asking old folks over the length and breadth of the land to maybe get a sense of whether or not it's a recent thing or older than a couple generations, and where it showed up first.
    fortunately, the OED has done this:
    An infantile form of ‘thank-you’, now also commonly in colloq. adult use.

    1772 Mrs. Delany in Life & Corr. (1861) I. 457 You would not say ‘Ta’ to me for my congratulation.
     
    So, at least 1861. Interesting. That adoption from infantile could also be baby talk not for thanks but a very old word that sounds more like "ta". Back to square one.
     
    And that's possibly correct if Mrs. Delany is expressing its origin and not merely her opinion on contemporary use.

    As a parallel, would we describe "mom" or "mum" as infantile or informal? Perhaps both?

    What I observe as 'against' the infantile of 'thank you' or Scandinavian 'tack' is that the Ta-part in those expressions does not sound the same as Ta. Ta does however sound the same as the ta-part in "Tapadh leat".

    Perhaps Mrs. Delany is right that Ta is infantile, but for "Tapadh leat" instead of thank you (and "Tapadh leat" means 'thank you' in an informal way anyway, so its use would have lost no meaning). Then, just like the use of "mom" it would not be considered infantile, even if it is really, but informal, endearing and affectionate. Am I splitting hairs here? Does this make any sense to anyone else?
     
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    And that's possibly correct if Mrs. Delany is expressing its origin and not merely her opinion on contemporary use.

    As a parallel, would we describe "mom" or "mum" as infantile or informal? Perhaps both?

    What I observe as 'against' the infantile of 'thank you' or Scandinavian 'tack' is that the Ta-part in those expressions does not sound the same as Ta. Ta does however sound the same as the ta-part in "Tapadh leat".

    Perhaps Mrs. Delany is right that Ta is infantile, but for "Tapadh leat" instead of thank you (and "Tapadh leat" means 'thank you' in an informal way anyway, so its use would have lost no meaning). Then, just like the use of "mom" it would not be considered infantile, even if it is really, but informal, endearing and affectionate. Am I splitting hairs here? Does this make any sense to anyone else?
    I agree. I've been thinking, since you mentioned this possible origin explanation, that it's a good candidate. How is
    "Tapadh leat" pronounced? Sounds-like version preferable because I don't know most of those pronunciation symbols.
     
    I agree. I've been thinking, since you mentioned this possible origin explanation, that it's a good candidate. How is
    "Tapadh leat" pronounced? Sounds-like version preferable because I don't know most of those pronunciation symbols.

    I cant link since I'm new on the forum, but do a Google on "tapadh leat pronunciation" and go to the Forvo page. There you will find an Irish and an English variant on pronunciation. The english one is pretty close to how my friends used to pronounce it.
     
    I cant link since I'm new on the forum, but do a Google on "tapadh leat pronunciation" and go to the Forvo page. There you will find an Irish and an English variant on pronunciation. The english one is pretty close to how my friends used to pronounce it.
    Sounds right for a shortened version or baby talk short version. Is "ta" use more prevalent in the north, I wonder?
     
    I'm fairly sure that the previous 100-odd posts demonstrated that ta is used pretty much everywhere in the UK. (I presume you were asking about the UK, Shokan:))

    If someone manages one day to prove incontrovertibly that English ta is derived from Gaelic tapadh leat/leibh, I will eat not only my hat but my socks, shirt, best lambswool sweater, left foot, kidneys, and anything else I can lay hands on. As someone said earlier, the influence of Gaelic on English ~ even on Scots ~ is vanishingly small. I don't say it's impossible, just that I'm prepared to bet most of my clothing and internal organs on its not being derived from Gaelic:)
     
    So, at least 1861.
    No, it was written in 1772, and published in 1861 :thumbsup:

    And that's possibly correct if Mrs. Delany is expressing its origin and not merely her opinion on contemporary use.
    Mrs Delany is expressing nothing. She is simply using the word "Ta".

    What I observe as 'against' the infantile of 'thank you' or Scandinavian 'tack' is that the Ta-part in those expressions does not sound the same as Ta. Ta does however sound the same as the ta-part in "Tapadh leat".
    We would then expect some record of "Ta" first in Ireland, and that is lacking.
    Perhaps Mrs. Delany is right that Ta is infantile,
    Mrs Delaney never said that. She was born in England despite her Irish name (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mary_Delany)
    Am I splitting hairs here?
    Probably :)
    Does this make any sense to anyone else?
    Not to me, Irish has given surprisingly little to English, and you would have to show that "Tapadh leat" is contracted in Irish to "Ta" to even start the conjecture.
     
    I don't say it's impossible, just that I'm prepared to bet most of my clothing and internal organs on its not being derived from Gaelic:)

    When I'm really sure about something, I usually say I'm prepared to bet my left hand, but not my right (I'm right handed if you have to ask...) :D.
     
    Modern Danish for thanks is Tak, probably already mentioned here. It's pronunciation is somewhere between Tack and Tock. Were not the Danes a large part of what we call the Anglo-Saxons in England beginning about 1200 years ago?
     
    [...] Were not the Danes a large part of what we call the Anglo-Saxons in England beginning about 1200 years ago?
    Not for lengthy discussion here, as it'd go off-topic, but I can't let that slide by without at least saying "Umm, no". The Angles and Saxons invaded Britain from the 5th century onwards. The Danes were a separate people (Vikings, in fact) who arrived 400 years later (9th century), and did a lot of Anglo-Saxon bashing.

    The Danes spoke a North Germanic (Scandinavian) language, whereas Angles and Saxons spoke West Germanic languages. However, the Danes did control much of England for most of a century and did contribute a number of words to the English language, though I've no idea whether that included "tak" as the origin of "ta".

    Ws:)
     
    Wordsmyth,

    You explained this point a lot better than I did. One of the things that I don't like with 'the Scandinavian connection' is the several century gap between the decline of the vikings and the first record of "Ta".

    Sure, the commoners 'slur' would be much less recorded, but as far as I know there is absolutely nothing for over 600 years. If it was part of the language for that long and still managed to stay under the radar, even as commoner 'slur', it is most definitely a feat in itself. It just seems very farfetched to me, but what do I know?
     
    As you say, Odinn, what do I know? I certainly don't, and probably nobody does. The problem with chasing the origins of a word as short and simple as "Ta" is that it's easy to make those two letters fit into all sorts of possible roots. I'm definitely not going to bet any parts of my body on either the Danish or the Irish/Scottish theories.

    Ws:)
     
    We would then expect some record of "Ta" first in Ireland, and that is lacking.

    No. If "Ta" comes from Scottish Gaelic, Irish Gaelic is completely irrelevant. Scottish Gaelic is further up the 'language tree' so the lacking of "Ta" in Irish Gaelic only further enhances the argument that it comes Scottish Gaelic. In fact, you would expect "Ta" NOT to be found in Irish.


    Not to me, Irish has given surprisingly little to English, and you would have to show that "Tapadh leat" is contracted in Irish to "Ta" to even start the conjecture.

    Again, no. For the same reason.
     
    Not to me, Irish has given surprisingly little to English, and you would have to show that "Tapadh leat" is contracted in Irish to "Ta" to even start the conjecture.
    No. If "Ta" comes from Scottish Gaelic, Irish Gaelic is completely irrelevant. Scottish Gaelic is further up the 'language tree' so the lacking of "Ta" in Irish Gaelic only further enhances the argument that it comes Scottish Gaelic.
    That is not logical. If "Ta" were lacking in Bantu would that enhance anything?
    In fact, you would expect "Ta" NOT to be found in Irish.
    OK, where is it shown that "Tapadh leat" in Scottish Gaelic is contracted to "Ta"? I've had a look at a Scottish Gaelic dictionary, and there is no note of this, but tà,thà appears as the present tense of the verb to be, which, assuming a similar pronunciation to our "ta" would lead to confusion...
     
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    Like it or not, "ta" is still alive and - ticking!

    (As an aside Roi Marphile - I have adopted as from now - "childfish" - no other word will ever do!)
     
    "Ta" is indeed alive and well, so to mark the 150-post milestone in this thread (!), I'd like to say "Ta much" to all contributors with whom I have an easy and informal relationship in the forum, and "Thank you" to everyone else —which is pretty much how I use those forms in everyday speech.:cool:

    Ws:)
     
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