Doubling of prepositions with verbs

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Meyer Wolfsheim

Senior Member
English
Hi everyone,

In the English language we make use of verbs with prepositions to code for motion, instrument, or create an entirely different meaning. English grammar as of now allows the placement of these prepositions either before their object (hence prepositions) or at the end of the sentence. A question illustrates my point best:

For who[m] did you buy the car?

Who[m] did you buy the car for?

Most natives I daresay prefer the second option nowadays. However, for being more formal or stylistical purpose the first one is sometimes used in writting and even in speech on the occasion. I've noticed however that sometimes both are used in the same sentence.

For who[m] did you buy the car for?

The previous sentence sounds perfect to my ears. I'm curious if its a phenomena with other English natives. It doesn't however work in general statements:

With them I went to the store with. :cross:
With them I went to the store.:tick:
I went to the store with them.:tick:
 
  • Meyer Wolfsheim

    Senior Member
    English
    I should like to wait and see what younger generation speakers have to say, not that I discount both of your inputs. I am not sure if being uneducated or not well read has anything to do with it but as is often the case that is possible though I don't know why such a construction would seem normal to my ears.

    A little off topci but also does the sentence sound ungrammatical if just "who" is used versus "whom?" I know in writing it would be ungrammatical to me.

    Oh and thank you for the plural correction.
     
    Last edited:

    cuchuflete

    Senior Member
    EEUU-inglés
    It may sound more acceptable to you just because you are more accustomed to hearing it. It sounds atrocious to me. I've been listening to AE and other Es for many decades, and something that awful stands out as dreadfully illiterate. My sons are just a bit older than you, and neither they nor their friends say things like that.
     

    Meyer Wolfsheim

    Senior Member
    English
    It may sound more acceptable to you just because you are more accustomed to hearing it. It sounds atrocious to me. I've been listening to AE and other Es for many decades, and something that awful stands out as dreadfully illiterate. My sons are just a bit older than you, and neither they nor their friends say things like that.
    Very well haha I can't make any arguments here until I've earned a degree or two in language and I guess it is probably due to hypercorrection, as we are braintrained here to NEVER put a preposition as the last element of a sentence so I think it is just due to slipping without realizing the preposition has already been stated at the beginning.
     

    xqby

    Senior Member
    English (U.S.)
    I don't have a problem ending a sentence with a preposition, and I'm not that much older than you, but the doubling sounds odd to me as well.

    I tend to say:
    "For whom did you buy that?"
    "Who did you buy that for?"
    In other words, I'll use "whom" if it directly follows a preposition.
     

    cuchuflete

    Senior Member
    EEUU-inglés
    I put prepositions at the ends of sentences without compunction. I don't bracket a sentence with matching prepositions. Just think of the opportunity John Donne (and sidekick Ernie Hemingway) missed: For whom the bell tolls for. To quote our esteemed Doctor panjandrum, "Pleuugh!"
     

    armour65

    Senior Member
    United States English
    Very well haha I can't make any arguments here until I've earned a degree or two in language and I guess it is probably due to hypercorrection, as we are braintrained here to NEVER put a preposition as the last element of a sentence so I think it is just due to slipping without realizing the preposition has already been stated at the beginning.
    Sorry, but as a member of the "younger generation" (I'm currently 22), I have to say that this is completely foreign to my ears and (as previously mentioned) just flat-out wrong. I can see, though, how to a Romance Language speaker this might be a possibility.
     

    entangledbank

    Senior Member
    English - South-East England
    I've never heard it. I've seen it in writing; probably only in long constructions, where someone chooses a 'for whom' construction to begin with, and by the time they get to the end they remember only the spirit, not the actual words, so they end with 'for' as if in the more natural 'who . . . for' construction. I assume it's flat-out ungrammatical for everyone, and caused by a common source of ungrammaticality in writing, namely forgetting how you started in a construction that's too complex to be common in speech. (Two common sources: not re-reading, also.)
     
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