Doubt on infinitive


Senior Member
Dear Sir/Madam,

Could anybody clarify my doubt on infinitive ?

The insolvent's property was sold by the official Assignee. The insolvent's creditors had to be paid.

From the above sentence are the insolvent's creditors were paid or not ?

if we combine the above two sentences the formation will be.

The insolvent's property was sold by the official Assignee to pay his creditors.

I think from the above sentence the property was sold but we can not say whether the creditors were paid or not.

Am I right ?

Best Regards,
  • Chez

    Senior Member
    English English
    You are correct. The first sentence tells us quite clearly that the property was sold. But the second sentence tells us that the creditors needed to be paid (they were owed money), but does not actually state categorically that they were paid.

    But, I'd also say that the sentence implies quite strongly that the creditors were paid: the reason the property was sold was in order to pay the creditors.
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