This would be of great help if you could translate the following to latin..."everything has its beauty, but not everyone sees it"

cheers!

 

Here's an attempt, but I'm hoping that someone more knowledgeable answers as well, both for you, and so I can ask a couple questions about my attempt as well.

Omnia sunt pulchra, atque hoc vident non omnes.

This is literally "All (things) are beautiful, but not all (people) see this."

 

thanks for your help! hopefully someone else will reply to confirm that what you say is right!

 

"sunt pulchra" doesn't work, because "sunt" is plural and "pulchra" is singular.

My 2 cents:

Latin:Omnes splendorem habent, sed haud illum omnes vident.
literal: Everyone splendor has, but not it everyone sees.
English: Everyone has its splendor, but not everyone sees it.

Correct me please.

 

Sure it is -- "pulchra" is the neuter plural.

Should that be splendorem (the accusative form)?

 

I feel a bit stupid not to know which gender "omnis" has. Is it really neuter? I thought it's masculine.

Oops, thank you. I typed too fast. I've already fixed it.

 

Don't worry -- my original response took me a while to put together and I triple checked to make it right.

As for "omnis", it's an adjective so it can be either.

 

But it translates "all" or "everyone" in English, right? So it should be a noun. I'm sorry, but I'm totally confused now.

 

Well, in Latin, adjectives can be used as nouns, or I like to think of it as the adjectives agreeing with some implied generic nouns like people, women, things, etc. So "omnis" means "every, all", and that means "omnes" = "all (people)". Hope that's clear...

 

Not yet ... Is it masculine, feminine, or neuter now?

 

"omnes" is masculine (and feminine, since the forms are the same for omnis) and plural. So the implied noun is masculine and plural, and could be translated as "people", giving "omnes" = "all people", or maybe "all men" or "all women" in the right context.

"omnia" on the other hand is neuter plural so the implied noun would be "things", giving "omnia" = "all things".

English has the same thing just much more limited, e.g. in "the meek will inherit the earth."

 

Haha, now I'm almost satisfied. Last "off-topic" question: Is meek really a noun?

 

No, it's an adjective, but English allows you to use "the" + X (with certain adjectives X) to mean "the X people", which is a noun (phrase). Latin just makes much more extensive use of this construction.

 

so this is definatly the correct translation??

"Omnia sunt pulchra, atque hoc vident non omnes".


Cos, this has to be right as its going to be a tattoo!!

thanks!!!

 

No, not definately!

Considering the purpose, I'd either wait for more knowledgeable responses or maybe ask in a couple other places as well, see what answers you get.

 

Oh my God! I was so tired last night. Sorry. I didn't recognize "meek" as people, rather as a condition like meekness.

 

I should rephrase though and say "the meek" means "those who are meek" -- "the meek people" is pretty poor English

 

Yes, but good German.

 

Good Greek too, except here you can drop the "people" part, just like in Latin.

 

so....can anyone give me the exact, correct translation?!?

thanks!

 

i think romosfan's attempt works well.
for a matter of style i'd rearrange it in this way: omnia pulchra sunt, sed hoc non omnes vedent.

my grand-grand...grandfathers loved to put the verb at the end of the statement....