Finish classes /the classes

Monica238

Senior Member
Russian
Do native AmE speakers say:

1. "Students finish their classes at 4.00".

2. "The classes finish at 4.00".

3. "Students finish the classes at 4.00"

but in British English only "school closes at four" works?

I have received different answers.
 
  • Wordy McWordface

    Senior Member
    English - SSBE Standard British
    Do native AmE speakers say:

    1. "Students finish their classes at 4.00".

    2. "The classes finish at 4.00".

    3. "Students finish the classes at 4.00"

    but in British English only "school closes at four" works?

    I have received different answers.
    'School closes at four' sounds very odd to me.

    We don't normally say that a school 'closes', especially not as a way of saying when lessons end for the day. It isn't even accurate: most schools stay open for quite a while after the last lesson ends.

    The three alternatives which Owlman mentions in #2 all sound natural in BrE, too. I would forget about 'closes', if I were you.
     
    Last edited:

    Monica238

    Senior Member
    Russian
    The second sentence seems reasonable. Their classes is more likely than the classes in this context.

    Is it the same with
    1. "After their classes students go home."

    2. "After classes students go home."

    3. "After the classes students go home" with the first and second sentences being correct and the third sentence being unlikely in this context?
     

    owlman5

    Senior Member
    English-US
    Yes. In a stand-alone sentence, after classes and after their classes sound natural. You really need a previous reference to the classes for after the classes to sound normal.
     

    Monica238

    Senior Member
    Russian
    Yes. In a stand-alone sentence, after classes and after their classes sound natural. You really need a previous reference to the classes for after the classes to sound normal.
    Instead of all the six sentences, can I use "after school has finished"?

    1. "Students finish their classes at 4.00".


    2. "The classes finish at 4.00".

    3. "Students finish the classes at 4.00".

    And

    1. "After their classes students go home."

    2. "After classes students go home."

    3. "After the classes students go home".

    Or "after school has finished" has a different meaning?
     

    owlman5

    Senior Member
    English-US
    Instead of all the six sentences, can I use "after school has finished"?

    1. "Students finish their classes at 4.00".


    2. "The classes finish at 4.00".

    3. "Students finish the classes at 4.00".
    School finishes at 4:00 is possible. I prefer School is over at 4:00. Students leave/go home after school is over. Classes end at 4:00. Classes are over at 4:00. After school has finished is reasonable and understandable, but it doesn't sound particularly likely or idiomatic to me.

    And

    1. "After their classes students go home."

    2. "After classes students go home."

    3. "After the classes students go home".

    Or "after school has finished" has a different meaning?
    After school has finished, students go home. Once again, this is understandable, but not particularly idiomatic. I am basing my opinion on what I have heard other people say in similar sentences.
     

    Monica238

    Senior Member
    Russian
    School finishes at 4:00 is possible. I prefer School is over at 4:00. Students leave/go home after school is over. Classes end at 4:00. Classes are over at 4:00. After school has finished is reasonable and understandable, but it doesn't sound particularly likely or idiomatic to me.


    After school has finished, students go home. Once again, this is understandable, but not particularly idiomatic. I am basing my opinion on what I have heard other people say in similar sentences.
    And "after the classes..." and "the classes finish..." are used when there is a previous reference. Right?
     
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