I heard it twice today, so I thought I'd better ask you all.
I always assumed the phrase to be "fount of all knowledge" - the source from which all knowledge springs. Yet it appears that some very articulate and well-read people consistently refer to the "font of all knowledge".
There is nothing immediately clear from my reading of the OED.
Thoughts?
I always assumed the phrase to be "fount of all knowledge" - the source from which all knowledge springs. Yet it appears that some very articulate and well-read people consistently refer to the "font of all knowledge".
There is nothing immediately clear from my reading of the OED.
Thoughts?