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Senior Member

I just wonder how does for/because/since/as differ in a adverbial clause of cause. For example, the following sentences are from A History of the English-speaking Peoples, by Winston Churchill:

Now the agrarians hoped to restore prosperity by remonetizing silver and coining all of the metal that the mines could yield. To business interests this seemed a sure road to bankruptcy, for inflation, they pointed out, was easier to start than to check.

When I tried to rewrite the sentence, I thought because/since/as also fit instead of 'for' above. But I still wonder whether the subtle meaning would change if I use other three one except the word 'for'.
  • Cenzontle

    Senior Member
    English, U.S.
    I agree with se16teddy, this "for" is old-fashioned and literary.
    "As" is also somewhat formal, not used much in speech.
    "Because" and "since" are used in speech. "Because" puts more emphasis on the fact that the relationship is causal.
    This is how it seems to me.
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