Forms of verbs corresponding to neuter nouns

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JLanguage

Senior Member
USA: American English, Learning Hebrew and Spanish
"In some languages, the verb form changes depending on whether the subject governing the verb is masculine or feminine. For example,

huwa akala (he ate)
hiya akalat (she ate)
[Arabic]

For languages that have neuter nouns, are there any that have a separate verb form if the subject is neuter?"



Thanks,
-Jonathan.

Note: Query rephrased using Elroy's suggestion verbatim.
 
  • Jana337

    Senior Member
    čeština
    Czech has them, and I am almost sure that other Slavic languages as well. But they coincide with the masculine and feminine forms in some tenses and modes.

    Jana
     

    Fidelia

    Member
    United States, English
    Latin has three genders, masculine, feminine and neuter. Verb forms change for neuter only in the compound tenses (all in the passive voice- indicative: perfect, pluperfect and future perfect, subjunctive: perfect and pluperfect) because the passive participle must agree in gender to what is receiving the action of the verb.

    Pronouns also have the three genders, and have to match what they are referring to.

    Hope this helped.
     

    suzzzenn

    Senior Member
    USA English
    Wikipedia would be a good place to start researching this. At the bottom of the article there is a long list of languages that have three way gender distinctions.

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Grammatical_gender

    Another place to look is the work of Matthew Dryer. He is a linguist who has done extensive work in language typology and is writing a book that examines how different languages handle various linguistic features. It's a linguistic atlas of the world. I'll try to find a link for you because the question you posed seems like something he would examine.

    Edit: Here it is. He has many downloadable articles.

    http://linguistics.buffalo.edu/people/faculty/dryer/dryer/dryer.htm

    Susan
     
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