FR: me louer cet appartement à moi


Senior Member
hi everyone,
I have a sentence: Vous pouvez me louer cet appartement à moi?
And my questionis: Why is there the "à moi" while the "me" has been used? Is there some grammar rules allowing such phenomenon or can it just be a wrong sentence out of dittograph?
Thank you very much!
  • Bonjour eric00,
    This is a colloquial way of saying "Pouvez-vous me louer cet appartement ?". The person insists on the fact that this appartment is to be rented to him. Perhaps because he is surprised that someone decides to rent him an appartment, or because he things he does not fulfill the conditions to get such an appartment?
    Nevertheless, this is not perfect grammar! ;)
    It's a colloquial way of insisting on the "me". It marks the surprise or doubt.
    For example, if you say "I don't know whether or not I will pay the rent each month", and the renter agrees anyway. Then you answer : "Vous pouvez me louer cet appartement à moi ?" because you are quite surprised. ;)

    Edit: Oops, too late.
    It's like saying

    Can you rent this apparment out to ME?

    In English the effect of "à moi" is conveyed through emphasis.
    Very true. This is an important difference between English and French. Insistance is generally conveyed through oral emphasis in English while it is often conveyed by adding extra words in French (with or without emphasis).