Hi everyone!
I am taking semantics and we are talking (briefly) about phi featurees and it was brought up that the definite pronouns in french presuppose uniqueness of a noun of a specific gender. For example, "La docteure aime les chats" is a valid sentence if there are two doctors in the context where only one identifies as female, whereas "the doctor likes cats" is invalid in the same situation. (However, I personally am unsure if that presupposition comes from the gender of the noun or the determiner)
My question is about whether this also applies to the genitives personal pronouns. In English, in the context that I have 2 professors, saying "My professor is sick" feels like it violates a uniqueness presupposition (though if you have differing opinions, let me know).
In the context where I have two professors where only one identifies as male, does saying "Mon professeur est malade" sound weird, violating the presupposition that "Mon professeur" is unique regardless of gender?
I am taking semantics and we are talking (briefly) about phi featurees and it was brought up that the definite pronouns in french presuppose uniqueness of a noun of a specific gender. For example, "La docteure aime les chats" is a valid sentence if there are two doctors in the context where only one identifies as female, whereas "the doctor likes cats" is invalid in the same situation. (However, I personally am unsure if that presupposition comes from the gender of the noun or the determiner)
My question is about whether this also applies to the genitives personal pronouns. In English, in the context that I have 2 professors, saying "My professor is sick" feels like it violates a uniqueness presupposition (though if you have differing opinions, let me know).
In the context where I have two professors where only one identifies as male, does saying "Mon professeur est malade" sound weird, violating the presupposition that "Mon professeur" is unique regardless of gender?