FR: se faire mal - accord

  • orlando09

    Senior Member
    English (England)
    It's fait mal. I would explain it by saying it's because faire and mal are so closely connected here - it's like the verb is actually "se faire mal" (to hurt oneself). The faire goes with "mal" and doesn't have to agree with "elles".

    If you said "elles se sont faites mal," it could literally (but nonsensically) mean - they made themsleves badly
     

    jann

    co-mod'
    English - USA
    I think the easiest explanation for the lack of agreement is this one:

    The base expression is faire mal à qqn. The person who gets hurt is the COI (indirect object) not the COD (direct object). No matter what, you never have agreement with an indirect object... even when you write it before the past participle, and even if you re-write the sentence in pronominal form. :)
     

    timpeac

    Senior Member
    English (England)
    I think the easiest explanation for the lack of agreement is this one:

    The base expression is faire mal à qqn. The person who gets hurt is the COI (indirect object) not the COD (direct object). No matter what, you never have agreement with an indirect object... even when you write it before the past participle, and even if you re-write the sentence in pronominal form. :)
    Yes, I agree - "mal" is the direct object here.
     
    < Previous | Next >
    Top