Yet, it's possible to come across conditional after si, but in very specific cases only.
When two si works together in the sentence, for example: Si j'étais riche, je me demande si je serais heureux.
Same in English... "If I were rich, I wonder if I
would be happy". Thanks for that example.
So I'm wondering now... Is French like in English in that it's perhaps more technically correct to use Si + imperfect subjunctive, when you want to express something conditional - "If I
were rich... I
would..."? But that in French, like in English, this rule is (perhaps more) often ignored, leading people to say "Si j'étais" - "If I
was (Many English speakers
do say this, ignoring the subjunctive)" - instead of "Si je fusse", which would sound ridiculous?
In this thread I'm only concerned about the use of tense/mood after the word "si" when it carries a strictly conditional meaning.
Oh, and it appears that I was wrong to say that the conditional was my only interest, because I'm wondering if French is the same as English in that "Si tu avais faim..." can mean "If you were hungry" both in the sense of "If you were hungry, why didn't you eat?" (not really conditional) and "If you were hungry, would you eat?" (conditional). In English this subtlety can be expressed with the pronouns
I and
he/she/it, because of the fact that they would change from "If I/he/she/it was (hungry, why didn't he eat?)" to "If I/he/she/it were (hungry, I'd eat)", depending on the context:
If you were hungry, why didn't you eat? - "Si tu avais faim, pourquoi n'as tu pas mangé?"
If you were hungry, would you eat? - "Mangerais-tu si tu avais faim?"
Are these 2 translations correct? Many thanks!