FR: There is no more of the good rum

Fowey

Member
English UK
I am writing an essay and want to say there is no more of the good rum which Jean had brought back from his last business trip.
I know that with a negative you put il n'y a plus de

il n’y a plus de bon rhum que Jean avait rapporté de son dernier voyage d’affaires.


but in this case I think it is one of the exceptions because I am referring to a particular bottle of rum so

Il n'y a plus du bon rhum que Jean avait rapporté de son dernier voyage d'affaires.

Please could you tell me if I am right or not?
 
  • J.F. de TROYES

    Senior Member
    francais-France
    I think Il n'y a plus du bon rhum que... is not correct, but the noun phrase can be determined by a demonstrative :

    Il n'y a plus de ce bon rhum que Jean avait rapporté de son dernier voyage d'affaires.
     

    Fowey

    Member
    English UK
    Dear Maîtreaupôle

    Thank you for your reply.

    I wanted to say that "there is no more of the good rum that Jean had brought back from his last business trip."

    have I made a mistake?
     
    Last edited by a moderator:

    Maître Capello

    Mod et ratures
    French – Switzerland
    I think Il n'y a plus du bon rhum que... is not correct, but the noun phrase can be determined by a demonstrative :
    Il n'y a plus de ce bon rhum que Jean avait rapporté de son dernier voyage d'affaires.
    No, it is not incorrect. Both options are valid:

    Il n'y a plus du bon rhum que Jean avait rapporté… :tick:
    Il n'y a plus de ce bon rhum que Jean avait rapporté… :tick:

    I'm wondering a bit about a confusion of tenses. "Il y a..." and "...que Jean avait..."
    There is no confusion. It is legitimate to use the pluperfect even when the main verb is in the present – in both French and English. Note by the way that the passé composé instead of the pluperfect wouldn't really work because there is no more rum now.
     

    Maîtreaupôle

    Senior Member
    anglais "Canada"
    Maître Capello et Fowey,

    I am not one who believes because I am an English speaker, I am necessarily right about any question of English grammar. Nevertheless, if in French it is okay to use the pluperfect even when the main verb is in the present, I don't believe it is so in English - or, at least, not in the case under discussion. The English sentence "There is no more of the good rum that Jean had brought back from his last business trip" strikes me as unidiomatic/odd, and that is because of the choice of tenses. To me, it should be, "The is no more of the good rum that Jean brought back from his last business trip."
     
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