Fugen -s: Arbeitsvertrag vs. Mietvertrag

anapeon

New Member
Spanish-Spain
Hi! I am aware the Fugen -s is a tricky subject, with many exceptions, but just wondering whether there is a reason why one says "Arbeitsvertrag" but "Mietvertrag". Both Arbeit and Miete are feminine, so according to the rules I have seen, normally the linking -s is not used in these cases. Does anyone have a structured answer or is this just one of many exceptions?

Thanks a lot!
 
  • Hutschi

    Senior Member
    Hi, in Grimm's Wörterbuch it is stated that both versions "Mietvertrag" exist. But with "s" only occasionally in spoken language. I found it also used in the Internet in written form.

    http://www.woerterbuchnetz.de/DWB?lemma=mietvertrag
    http://www.woerterbuchnetz.de/DWB?bookref=12,2182

    The "s" must sound nice, and it must be easy to speak.
    One of the versions found the way into standard language.

    So if both versions exist, there must be a kind of exclusion rule in such cases after some time. I do not need any. May be after there is a law, the language follows the law.
     
    Last edited:

    anapeon

    New Member
    Spanish-Spain
    Hi, in Grimm's Wörterbuch it is stated that both versions "Mietvertrag" exist. But with "s" only occasionally in spoken language. I found it also used in the Internet in written form.

    http://www.woerterbuchnetz.de/DWB?lemma=mietvertrag
    http://www.woerterbuchnetz.de/DWB?bookref=12,2182

    The "s" must sound nice, and it must be easy to speak.
    One of the versions found the way into standard language.

    So if both versions exist, there must be a kind of exclusion rule in such cases after some time. I do not need any. Maz be after there is a law, the language follows the law.
    Thanks, Hutschi! So would speakers mostly use Mietvertrag or Mietsvertrag? And therefore both Arbeitsvertrag and Mietsvertrag are exceptions to the rule that the first noun feminine means no Fugen -s, oder???
     
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