Greece has ceded territory to foreign invaders

farhad_persona

Senior Member
Farsi
Hello guys,

Am I using 'cede' correctly here? Can a country cede its territory to foreign forces?
Throughout its history, Greece has ceded vast portions of its territory to foreign invaders.

Or should I use 'lose?'

Throughout its history, Greece has lost vast portions of its territory to foreign invaders.

Thank you in advance,
 
  • wandle

    Senior Member
    English - British
    Both sentences are correct English, but they have distinctly different meanings.
    The first sentence says that Greece surrendered, or handed over, territory to invaders.
    The second does not say that, but simply that Greece lost territory.

    In the first case, the changes could have taken place with no fighting.
    In the second case, the changes could have taken place entirely as a result of fighting.
     
    Last edited:

    farhad_persona

    Senior Member
    Farsi
    Both sentences are correct English, but they have distinctly different meanings.
    The first sentence says that Greece surrendered, or handed over, territory to invaders.
    The second does not say that, but simply that Greece lost territory.

    In the first case, the changes could have taken place with no fighting.
    In the second case, the changes could have taken place entirely as a result of fighting.
    Thanks.
    Can the first one mean that they were attacked and tried to defend their territory, but the enemies were better and the Greeks lost territory?
     
    "Ceded" means stating one's acceptance* of 'loss' [or change of status] of territory. It might occur after a war (but if you've lost a war, it's rather superfluous), but more often a cession takes place after negotiation or sale or some such.

    *Or, at very least, officially giving up claims.

    It sounds like "Greece lost..." is better, or something like "Greece was forced to give up [or surrender] territories...."
     
    < Previous | Next >
    Top