Has a --- taste to it

meijin

Senior Member
Japanese
Hi there. I'd like to know the difference of nuance between the following two sentences:

1. The wine has a dry taste to it.
2. The wine has a dry taste.

Am I correct in assuming that you say #1 when you want to express that the dryness is native to the wine? In other words, if you just want to say the wine tastes dry, is #2 enough?

Thanks
 
  • Florentia52

    Modwoman in the attic
    English - United States
    Your sentences mean exactly the same thing.

    We don't normally describe wine as having "a dry taste," however. We would describe it as "a dry wine."
     

    Keith Bradford

    Senior Member
    English (Midlands UK)
    The wine is dry.
    The wine tastes dry.
    The wine has a dry taste.
    The wine has a dry taste to it.

    All of these are correct, and all mean the same thing. But as the sentence gets longer, it increasing means "...and this is unexpected."
     
    < Previous | Next >
    Top