has been, was

Ergulis

Senior Member
1. Since he has provided the context, it has been easy for me to explain.

2. Since he has provided the context, it was easy for me to explain.

Are both these sentences correct? I have doubt about the correctness the other sentence because of presence of present perfect and past simple together in one sentence.

 
  • Keith Bradford

    Senior Member
    English (Midlands UK)
    No.1 is normal and logical: both the provision of context and the ability to explain happened in the recent past and continue to exist.
    No.2 is unusual and illogical: the context was provided recently and continues to exist, so why is my ability to explain treated as a past, done-and-done-with event?

    It's not that the perfect and past exist in the same sentence, it's that they're in the wrong order. "Since he provided the context, it has been easy for me to explain" would be OK.
     

    Ergulis

    Senior Member
    Ok, thanks for the addition.

    What about this:

    Since he has provided the context, it is easy for me to explain it (now).

    Is it acceptable in this way?
     
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