He has no one who look after him

thegame

Member
español
Hi everyone

I am trying to use the subjunctive mood, that's why i am asking if this sentence is correct: "He has no one who attend to him". I know it sounds odd but i want to know if it is gramatically correct.

Thank you
 
  • JamesM

    Senior Member
    Hi everyone

    I am trying to use the subjunctive mood, that's why I am asking if this sentence is correct: "He has no one who attend to him". I know it sounds odd but I want to know if it is gramatically correct.

    Thank you
    ("I", the personal pronoun, is always capitalized in English, no matter where it appears in the sentence.)

    The subjunctive mood is very limited in English. I can't think of any way that you could start with "He has no one who" and follow it immediately with the subjunctive.

    If you started the sentence with a phrase that called for the subjunctive in English it would be much easier.

    "I demand that he have someone to look after him."

    Of course, this is a completely different meaning from your original sentence but it allows you to use the subjunctive.
     

    Loob

    Senior Member
    English UK
    I'm afraid we don't use the subjunctive in that sort of construction, thegame, as James has said. So, no, your sentence is not grammatically correct.

    I'd be most likely to say "He has no-one looking after him" or "He has no-one to look after him".
     
    < Previous | Next >
    Top