That may be correct in some versions of English, but it sounds very strange, or archaic, to me....
"He has not a pencil or a pen."
That is not correct English."He has not any pencil."
That is OK in the right context.or "He has no pencil."
That, too, sounds strange and perhaps archaic.Thank you very much, panjandrum.
If the sentence in the original post was "He has not a pen."(without the second part) would it be idomatic this time? Thanks.