Hindi: causative

mbcrazy

Member
india-hindi & english
Just take an example of causative sentences....which are as follows:
I got him to sit my brother.
In hindi-Mene usse apne bhai ko bitahaya.
I got him to write.
In hindi...mene usse likhvaya.
My question is ..what does the mean of I got him?
Mene usese or mene usko.
Thanks,
Regards.
 
  • MonsieurGonzalito

    Senior Member
    Castellano de Argentina
    what does the mean of I got him?

    The causative flavor is given lexically by the verb itself, not by the other elements of the sentence.
    In other words, you know that it is causative because you are using likhvaanaa and not likhnaa.

    maiN ne us_ko likhvaayaa means "I caused [something unspecified] to be read for him." "I had something read for him". He is the target of the action.

    maiN ne us_se likhvaayaa means "I caused [something unspecified] to be read by him." "I had him read something". He is the agent, instrument, or conduit of the action.
     

    littlepond

    Senior Member
    Hindi
    maiN ne us_ko likhvaayaa means "I caused [something unspecified] to be read for him." "I had something read for him". He is the target of the action.

    maiN ne us_se likhvaayaa means "I caused [something unspecified] to be read by him." "I had him read something". He is the agent, instrument, or conduit of the action.

    read??? :confused:

    (Meanwhile, the OP seems to be a native Hindi speaker: his question is about understanding English word "get," not "us se" and "us ko.")
     

    MonsieurGonzalito

    Senior Member
    Castellano de Argentina
    Sorry, write. :rolleyes:

    maiN ne us_ko likhvaayaa means "I caused [something unspecified] to be written for him." "I had something writenn for him". He is the target of the action.

    maiN ne us_se likhvaayaa means "I caused [something unspecified] to be written by him." "I had him write something". He is the agent, instrument, or conduit of the action.


    his question is about understanding English word "get,
    (if that is what you are asking, @mbcrazy)

    To get [person X] [do something]
    To have [person X] [do something]


    are idiomatic ways, in English, to express the idea that someone causes person X to do something.
    It is a usual way to tranalste causative actions in that language.
     

    littlepond

    Senior Member
    Hindi
    Sorry, write. :rolleyes:

    maiN ne us_ko likhvaayaa means "I caused [something unspecified] to be written for him." "I had something writenn for him". He is the target of the action.
    Not really. It means that I made him write something, mostly when, for example, I read out (dictate) to him and he writes.

    maiN ne us ko kavitaa likhvaayii: I dictated the poem to him (i.e., I read, he wrote)
     

    MonsieurGonzalito

    Senior Member
    Castellano de Argentina
    So, "to dictate" is the only lexical translation possible of likhvaanaa?
    It has totally lost (or never had) the literal sense of "making someone write"?
     

    MonsieurGonzalito

    Senior Member
    Castellano de Argentina
    If I say, for example:

    akbaar ne mariam ko (xushnaviis se) quraan likhvaayaa?

    Isn't it clear that Mariam didn't write the Quran herself?
    Isn't it reasonable to assume that the calligrapher didn't need it to be dictated to him?
     

    littlepond

    Senior Member
    Hindi
    If I say, for example:

    akbaar ne mariam ko (xushnaviis se) quraan likhvaayaa?

    Isn't it clear that Mariam didn't write the Quran herself?

    likhvaayii

    It is not clear. Just like "bachchoN ko homework karanaa." What is clear is that Akbar (I guess it is not Akbaar?) was somehow engaged in the process of getting it written.
     
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