his name set on the marks of the bale, or his name was set on

enkidu68

Senior Member
turkish
Hi folks, this is cited from Colonel Jack by Defoe.
My question: should not it be "his name was set on...? or does "set on" have a passive voice also?
Bolds belong to me.

He said he would have accepted my present from me if I had not been under a disaster, but as it was it would be cruel and ungenerous. But I told him he was
obliged to hear my reason for his accepting it. Then I told him that this parcel was made up for him by [his?] name by my wife and I in Virginia, and his name [was?] set on the marks of the bale, and accordingly I showed him the marks, which was indeed on one of the bales, but I had doubled
it now, as above, so that I told him these were his own proper goods
 
  • lingobingo

    Senior Member
    English - England
    The text is fine without your suggested additions, although they do help explain it.

    “By name” is a common phrase, implying use of the actual name of someone or something in order to be specific.

    We didn’t know who he would choose, but then he asked for me by name.
    The victim was never mentioned by name in the news reports.

    In “The parcel was made up for him … and his name set on the marks of the bale”, the verb was applies to both statements.
     

    PaulQ

    Senior Member
    UK
    English - England
    Then I told him that this parcel was made up for him by name (= created for him with special reference to his name as the person to whom it would be delivered) by my wife and I in Virginia, and among all the markings (= pieces of written information) that were on the bale, his name had been written on the bale also.
     

    lingobingo

    Senior Member
    English - England
    That’s right. On the outside of the bale, his name was specifically given as the recipient, along with whatever other information was required.
     
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