I'm not a native speaker but I just listened to this book about pronouncing the s in plural or in verbs in the present tense.
If the word ends with a voiced sound like g or d, the s is pronounced voiced as will, i.e z
If the word ends with a voiceless sound like k or t, the s is pronounced voiceless as will, i.e s
here I found this http://esl.about.com/od/speakingenglish/a/voiced.htm
The rules this link points to are not entirely accurate, but it is true that the pronunciation of the -s
, and -'s
endings added to nouns and verbs in English depends entirely on the final sound of the word to which the ending is added.
And the explanation given is correct for -s
Sound interesting. But can you please give us any information on accent reduction and how to pick up correct pronouncation.
How to reduce or eliminate an "accent" depends on the accent in question. For example in Chinese, the ts
sounds are common but ts
cannot end a syllable. Spanish, on the other hand, first devoiced its dz
sound to a ts
and centuries ago replaced ts
most of the Spanish-speaking world but with a th
sound in some places.
In other words, Chinese speakers and Chinese speakers tend to have very different difficulties with English -ts
To explain the English -ts
sounds to both Chinese speakers and Spanish speakers, it is usually best to provide examples of native English pronunciation and accurate descriptions of the mechanism for making the sounds rather than going into all the things that don't sound native.
As has been said, 'trends' is pronounced 'trenz', since the 'z' sound is basically 'ds'. In British English it is common to replace the 't' with a glottal stop, which might be easier.
I disagree with the statement that a z
sound is basically ds
. What happens to the d
sound in trends
is due to its being sandwiched in between an n
and a z
. When speaking quickly, we tend to omit d
, and it is particularly natural to pronounce, for example, lends
identically except in very careful speech.