I’ve got a sore throat and I’ve got a stomach ache

VicNicSor

Banned
Russian
After filming video, Stephen says:
- I’m exhausted after all that directing. I’ve got a sore throat and I’ve got a stomach ache. It must be the stress.
BBC video

Are these the present perfect of "to get", or are they the verb "to have (got)"?
Thanks.
 
  • VicNicSor

    Banned
    Russian
    Thank you.
    When Ashlie has uploaded video to Youtube, she tells Stephen:
    - Look, Stephen, we’ve already got some ‘likes’.
    And a bit later:
    - Look, Stephen, we’re a hit! We’ve got thousands of views already.

    Are these the simple "to have", too?
     

    velisarius

    Senior Member
    British English (Sussex)
    Isn't it true that "I've got +noun" will always have the meaning "I have"? I can't think of any examples where this would not be true.

    Edit: I've thought of one: if we use the "get passive: "He's got Mary pregnant." It might be one of a few exceptions though.
     

    VicNicSor

    Banned
    Russian
    Thank you for the answers.

    Julian, but that thread seems to discuss "have got" only (do you have vs. Have you got, not "have got(ten) vs have")
     

    JulianStuart

    Senior Member
    English (UK then US)
    The usage is very similar whether statement or question - especially the AE vs BE distinction. A simplification would be that in BE "I've got" means "I possess" and is used more frequently than in AE, although both use "I have" to mean the same thing. In AE "I've gotten" means "I have obtained" and "I've gotten" is not used in BE.
     

    VicNicSor

    Banned
    Russian
    The usage is very similar whether statement or question - especially the AE vs BE distinction. A simplification would be that in BE "I've got" means "I possess" and is used more frequently than in AE, although both use "I have" to mean the same thing. In AE "I've gotten" means "I have obtained" and "I've gotten" is not used in BE.
    So, the thing I should remember is:
    though to get + a noun is widely used, the present perfect of it -- have got + noun (have obtained) -- is not usually used neither in BrE, nor in AmE, am I right?
     

    Wordsmyth

    Senior Member
    Native language: English (BrE)
    If you consider "I've got" as the present perfect being used to describe a past action with a present consequence, then the present consequence is "I have". The use of "I've got" to mean "I possess" is simply putting full emphasis on the present consequence of 'having', rather than on the past action of 'obtaining'.
    Isn't it true that "I've got +noun" will always have the meaning "I have"? I can't think of any examples where this would not be true. [...]
    I can think of one BrE usage, veli, where "I've got [+ noun]" means "I have obtained", but not "I have". It's when the present perfect is used just to describe a past action at some undetermined time in the past, with (for practical purposes) no present consequence:
    - "I've got my favourite brand of orange juice from shop X in the past. But they don't stock it now, so I get it from shop Y."

    Ws:)
     

    VicNicSor

    Banned
    Russian
    If you consider "I've got" as the present perfect being used to describe a past action with a present consequence, then the present consequence is "I have". The use of "I've got" to mean "I possess" is simply putting full emphasis on the present consequence of 'having', rather than on the past action of 'obtaining'.

    I can think of one BrE usage, veli, where "I've got [+ noun]" means "I have obtained", but not "I have". It's when the present perfect is used just to describe a past action at some undetermined time in the past, with (for practical purposes) no present consequence:
    - "I've got my favourite brand of orange juice from shop X in the past. But they don't stock it now, so I get it from shop Y."

    Ws:)
    Could you tell me: how would it differ from the simple past?:
    - "I got my favourite brand of orange juice from shop X in the past. But they don't stock it now, so I get it from shop Y." -- Or does it look like I got it only once?
    Or if I said:
    - "I used to get my favourite brand of orange juice from shop X in the past. But they don't stock it now, so I get it from shop Y." -- Would this convey the original meaning better?
    And I've got in this sentence just conveys the idea of "experience", like the present perfect in "I've been to Africa", am I right?
     
    Last edited:

    Wordsmyth

    Senior Member
    Native language: English (BrE)
    OK, Vik, here we go:

    The simple past is often used by AmE speakers in such a context. In BrE, the simple past is usually used when referring to a specifically defined or perceived occasion. If it's just some time in the past, but it's only the fact that it has happened that matters, not when it happened, we use the present perfect.

    So I would say "I got it from shop X last week", but never "I got it from shop X in the past".

    "I used to get" indicates that it was habitual, whereas "I've got" (= I've obtained) doesn't do that: I might have bought my orange juice from shop X only once, or twice, or many times.

    The idea of 'experience'? Hmm, maybe, but for me it's not in exactly the same way as "I've been to Africa": that can be seen as "I am (at present) someone whose experience includes having been to Africa". As a result I have a greater knowledge and understanding of Africa; I have memories that live on into the present (not to mention the photos, the T-shirt, etc :D). My life-experience has been enlarged by the visit.

    My 'orange juice' example is more like "I've heard of Millard Fillmore, but I don't know who he was". Technically, of course, it's the same idea of 'experience', but frankly I don't see it as in any way significant in the effect that my 'experience package' has on the present 'me'. I don't see it as "I am someone who has heard of Millard Fillmore", but simply as a statement of a past fact: it's just that I probably don't know when in the past, and when doesn't matter anyway, so I use the present perfect.

    A grammarian would undoubtedly tell me that that distinction is irrelevant, because the present perfect has to be justified by some present effect. OK, but in practice I can't see the present effect of having bought orange juice a couple of times in the past. That's why I prefer to say (as do some reference sources) that one use of the present perfect is to refer to an action or state at some undefined time in the past, when the time itself is of no relevance, and the fact that it has happened is all that matters.

    Ws:)
     
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