I <am/have> yet to hear from them

seeeeker

Member
Hindi, India
Which of the following is correct:

1. I "am yet to hear" anything from them.

2. I "have yet to hear" anything from them.

Thanks in advance!
 
  • Dimcl

    Senior Member
    Canadian English
    Which of the following is correct:

    1. I "am yet to hear" anything from them.

    2. I "have yet to hear" anything from them.

    Thanks in advance!
    Look at the logic (or lack thereof) in the first sentence:

    "I am yet to hear anything from them"

    Could we then also say:

    "I am yet to see them" OR "I am yet to talk to them" OR "I am yet to go on holiday"?

    Or, would it make more sense to say:

    "I have yet to hear from them", "I have yet to see them", "I have yet to go on holiday", etc.

    The use of "have" is required. The sentences could then be arranged thusly:

    "I haven't heard from them yet", "I haven't seen them yet", "I haven't gone on holiday yet".
     

    haywire

    Senior Member
    US - English
    I'm with Dimcl 100%...

    I saw the topic but I wasn't sure, I googled both and plenty of hits came up for both but the first one just didn't sound right to my AmE ears. I figured it was a BE or AuE or something.
     

    BigRedDog

    Senior Member
    France, French
    I'm with Dimcl 100%...

    I saw the topic but I wasn't sure, I googled both and plenty of hits came up for both but the first one just didn't sound right to my AmE ears. I figured it was a BE or AuE or something.
    Hummm...
    - today I'm yet to go fishing with my grand-pa (this forthcoming weekend)
    - next weekend (we are fishing) I have yet to see a fish

    In other words, I thought that "I'm yet" was to be understood as a future and that "I have yet" was kind of a present perfect (i.e. an ongoing action started in the past)
     

    Scholiast

    Senior Member
    Greetings all

    I make no apology for reviving this old thread and chestnut.

    To me, "I am yet to..." (rather than "I have yet to...") grates, yet (!) we seem to be hearing it all the time in broadcast media and seeing it in responsible printed journalism too, at least in the UK.

    A trawl through the reference tools at my disposal yields, however, no clear resolution of why "I have yet to..." is right and "I am yet to..." wrong.

    This is perhaps further complicated by the subtle difference of nuance between

    (a) "I am to go...", and
    (b) "I have to go..."

    For in (a) the implication is that the duty "to go" is imposed by a rule or an order emanating from someone else, whereas (b) may involve a duty that is morally self-imposed.

    Thoughts? << Not needed. >>

    Σ
     
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    ewie

    Senior Member
    English English
    Uninvited thought: I'm yet to hear from them sounds totally unremarkable and innocuous to me. I certainly wouldn't call it incorrect, and it doesn't grate at all on my ear:confused::confused::confused:

    :idea:He's yet to hear from them = is this a contraction of he has or he is? does it matter? has my brain been misinterpreting it as he is all these years? (this may be significant in some way).
     
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    Scholiast

    Senior Member
    Greetings

    Thanks, ewie, for rejoining the engagement with this one. I have no doubt that the confusion, if that is what it is, arises from the fact that in spoken English, "He's" may stand for either "He is", or "He has".

    But this makes me wonder, can we apply this to all six of the grammatical persons: "We've yet to win an away game this season", or "We're yet to win an away game..."?

    "We" or "You" or "They" with "are" just feels wrong to me, but I cannot pinpoint why, and I am moved to wonder what, if any, literary sources might shed light on the question.

    Σ
     
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