I have done nothing to be forgiven

yukinohana

Senior Member
Japanese
Hello,
"I have done nothing to be forgiven."
"I have done nothing to be forgiven for."
Are these sentences the same meaning and which one is grammatically correct?
Thanks a lot! :)
 
  • RCA86

    Senior Member
    UK
    British English
    They're basically the same, yeah. As far as I know, they're both grammatically correct as well. You won't get any funny looks if you say either.

    My interpretation is that the first one is a shortened version of this:

    I have done nothing which needs to be forgiven.
     
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