I have / have got + school subject

< Previous | Next >

Youhou21

New Member
French
Hi everyone !

When talking about a school timetable, is it ok to say "I have got English on Wednesdays at 3pm." or is it weird?
I have the impression that it is more natural to say "I have". But I was wondering if it was also possible to say "I have got".
Thank you very much for your help !
 
  • Mrs JJJ

    Senior Member
    USA
    English (British)
    I agree with Linkway. However, as a British English speaker, my experience is that the first is the norm for American English.
     

    robalexander

    New Member
    English - US
    In spoken US English usage, these would get my votes for most common:

    1) I have (an) English (class, seminar, lecture, lesson) (on) Wednesdays at 3 PM.

    2) I've got (an) English (class, seminar, lecture, lesson) (on) Wednesdays at 3 PM.

    The parenthetical terms are optional. "I've" is interchangeable with "I have," though
    in the US "I have got" is uncommon in my experience, and sounds a little awkward.
     
    Last edited:

    Sandrin_Curandera

    Senior Member
    Russian
    I came across the same problem as the person who created this thread some years ago.

    In a lot of texbooks we can read:
    For possession, relationships, illnesses and characteristics of people or things we can use both 'have' and 'have got'.

    But for actions and experience we can only use ''have':
    I have breakfast (eat something for breakfast)
    I have a shower
    I have a swim
    I have a party
    Etc.

    But what about lessons/classes? I don't possess them! They are not relationships, illnesses or characteristics. They're an action, an experience.
    I have riding lessons twice a week. (=I have this kind of experience)
    I have English lessons on Fridays. (the same)

    So, we can't use 'have got' with lessons, can we? But I can see a lot of examples (in this thread too) that 'have got' is often used with 'lessons'.

    Can anyone explain me why?
     

    serbianfan

    Senior Member
    British English
    In much British usage, there is a distinction here that's a bit like the present simple/continuous distinction. If I say "We have English at 3 o'clock" it can only mean "We normally have English at 3 o'clock". If I say "We've got English at 4 o'clock today" it means e.g. that the timetable has changed just for today, so English has been moved from 3 to 4. Compare the (British) shop assistant who says "We normally have pineapples, but we haven't got any today". Or I could say "I often have a headache in the morning, but today I've got a very bad headache" (fortunately not true, and I hope this grammar question isn't giving you a headache!)
     

    Sandrin_Curandera

    Senior Member
    Russian
    In much British usage, there is a distinction here that's a bit like the present simple/continuous distinction. If I say "We have English at 3 o'clock" it can only mean "We normally have English at 3 o'clock". If I say "We've got English at 4 o'clock today" it means e.g. that the timetable has changed just for today, so English has been moved from 3 to 4. Compare the (British) shop assistant who says "We normally have pineapples, but we haven't got any today". Or I could say "I often have a headache in the morning, but today I've got a very bad headache" (fortunately not true, and I hope this grammar question isn't giving you a headache!)
    But can't we say about today: 'We have English at 3 o'clock, but today we are having it at 4'.
    Isn't it the same?
     

    serbianfan

    Senior Member
    British English
    Yes, it's the same in that case. With other expressions with "have", "got" wouldn't even work: "He normally has breakfast at 7, but today he's having it at 8".
     
    < Previous | Next >
    Top