I love to play the piano, read books and jog.

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russian80

Senior Member
Russian
What is the difference in meaning and frequency of usage between
I love to play the piano, to read books and to jog.
I love to play the piano, read books and jog.
 
  • Andygc

    Senior Member
    British English
    There is no difference in meaning. I doubt anybody here has the data to answer your question about frequency.
     

    dojibear

    Senior Member
    English - Northeast US
    It's the same in AE: zero difference in meaning.

    Since native speakers all know we can omit "to" here (as long as we pause in speech, or put a comma in writing), I think it is much more common to omit "to". Most people are fluent speakers by the age of 6 or 7, and know these "rules". Later we learn them in writing, or we copy the way it is said.
     

    russian80

    Senior Member
    Russian
    I think that this would help highlight the difference:
    I love to play the piano, love to read books and love to jog.
     

    tunaafi

    Senior Member
    English - British (Southern England)
    I think that this would help highlight the difference:
    I love to play the piano, love to read books and love to jog.
    I don't understand what you mean by 'highlight the difference'. There is no difference in meaning, as two members have already said. The sentence you have produced would rarely be uttered by a native speaker, though it's grammatically correct.
    (Crossposted)
     

    Edinburgher

    Senior Member
    German/English bilingual
    The "difference" being highlighted is that in which the structure is changed, not the meaning.
    You might as well repeat the subject too:

    I love to play the piano, I love to read books, and I love to jog.

    This can sometimes work well for some kind of oratory effect, but normally we would repeat neither the subject "I" nor the verb "love", and I think it would also be unusual to repeat the "to" particle.
     
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