I might have felt a little uncertain beforehand

Cloud88

Senior Member
Italiano
Can you help me understand the reason of using 'might' in this sentence??

'If you'd told me it would happen, I might have felt a little uncertain beforehand'

It occurs to me the second period is a direct consequence of the first one , certain to happen, and then that the modal verb 'may' does not give the idea of consequence fitting a bit odd here.
If I try to turn the 2nd period as a possibility instead it really sounds incorrect in my mind. Can someone help me understand this choice?

Thanks in advance.
 
  • velisarius

    Senior Member
    British English (Sussex)
    I'm not too certain what you are asking, but look at the difference here:

    1) If you'd told me it would happen, I would have felt a little uncertain beforehand.
    2) If you'd told me it would happen, I might have felt a little uncertain beforehand.

    In 1, if I had been told, I would (doubtless) have felt uncertain. In 2, if I had been told, I might (possibly) have felt uncertain.

    Having said that, I find the sentence puzzling: why should you feel uncertain because you are told something?
    Ah, I just saw the same question in the English/Italian forum. This is your translation, so you must decide how much certainty or lack of certainty you want to convey. Either version is possible.

    (It is beyond the scope of this thread, but your choice of "beforehand" does sound a little "off" - though I would need further context to be sure about that.)
     
    < Previous | Next >
    Top