NoIs this related to your other recent thread, russian80: I would not climb Misch if... it will have been raining?
A student of mine. There was a dialogue:russian80 - Who wrote the sentence? It doesn't make sense to me.
It must be coincidence, then. The sequence of tenses is identical - and wrong - in both.
The phrase "will have come" and "by the time" are complicated. You are comparing two events (John's arrival, your departure) and saying one will happen before the other. I suggest:John will have come tomorrow by the time you leave.
I am not sure what "join him" means. You are leaving. He is arriving. That is "separating", not "joining".- I would join him if he will have come by 5 o'clock.
This is, of course, grammatically impeccable (unlike the original), but I wonder about the logical connections. Unless A is lying, then B should know from A's statement whether John will be here by 5:00. Unless "if he's here by 5:00" is meant as an echo, as in:A: John will be here by the time you leave tomorrow.
B: I'll join him if he's here by 5 o'clock.
How so? We don't really know what "join him" means. My guess is that it means join him for a coffee and a chat (perhaps a private chat without A present). To allow that to happen, enough time needs to be allocated for that interaction. Here's the scenario that comes to mind:Unless A is lying, then B should know from A's statement whether John will be here by 5:00.
Maybe AE is different from BE here. My concern is the word "join". In this context "I will join him" means "I will do what he will be doing". He plans to fly to Paris? Then "I will join him" means "I will fly to Paris with him".We don't really know what "join him" means.