in bonam partem

Discussion in 'Lingua Latina (Latin)' started by Löwenfrau, Jul 15, 2013.

  1. Löwenfrau

    Löwenfrau Senior Member

    São Paulo
    Brazilian Portuguese
    This expression has shown up in a text which I'm translating (into Portuguese). I've researched and found out that it is used in a Law context, meaning approximately: for the best. The trouble is that in this text the expression is not likely to be intended in the context of Law, because the author talks about beauty:

    Formosus meant (already) in Latin and then in archaic English (formous) beautiful, in bonam partem, whereas the Greek amorphos (lat. informis) meant ugly, in the contrary of eumorphos = beautiful.


    já significava em latim e depois em inglês arcaico (formous) belo, in bonam partem, enquanto que o grego amorphos (lat. informis) significava feio, em oposição a eumorphos = belo.

    Do you know wether in bonam partem can, by any means, be properly used in a context of beauty/uglyness discussion?

    Thanks in advance!
    Last edited: Jul 15, 2013
  2. CapnPrep Senior Member

    In the context of definitions (e.g. in a dictionary), in bonam partem means "in a good sense, with a positive connotation", while in malam partem means "in a bad sense, with a negative connotation".
  3. Löwenfrau

    Löwenfrau Senior Member

    São Paulo
    Brazilian Portuguese
    Now it makes sense... Thanks, Capn. :)
  4. onoda New Member


    I searched on google in bonam partem and the results that google returns are,in bonam partem , related to the juridical sphere,but this Latin expression has a meaning largely, for the most part,extra-juridical.A translation in Portuguese is em boa parte,in English largely, for the most part.Now, in that sentence,i ,personally,would translate that in bonam partem with "in the majority of cases" or maybe with "one of the main meanings".
  5. Löwenfrau

    Löwenfrau Senior Member

    São Paulo
    Brazilian Portuguese
    Thanks for researching, onoda. Actually, I won't translate te latin expression, since the author purposely quoted it in Latin. I just wanted to check if he had in mind, for this and the other expressions that he mentions along with it, a juridical context only, or a broader context. :)

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