[in my email for Jack] vs [in Jack's email]

bennyfriendly

Senior Member
korean
One of my non-native English speaking friends made up the two similar examples below.

(1) I said to my cousin, "Yesterday, I emailed Jack and Mary the reasons why I couldn't attend the staff meeting. I am very upset about why my employer has refused to give me a raise, which I only mentioned in Jack's email."

(2) I said to my cousin, "Yesterday, I emailed Jack and Mary the reasons why I couldn't attend the staff meeting. I am very upset about why my employer has refused to give me a raise, which I only mentioned in my email for Jack."

My friend asked me if "Jack's email" and "my email for Jack" have the same meaning. I think they do because after he receives your email, it becomes his own, so you can say "his email" even though you wrote it.

What is your opinion? Thanks a lot.
 
  • owlman5

    Senior Member
    English-US
    so you can say "his email" even though you wrote it.
    This is probably true, but it doesn't seem like a good thing to do if you are really interested in distinguishing the email that you write from the email that somebody else writes. If your context makes the origin of the email absolutely clear, then it doesn't matter whether you call it Jack's email or my email to Jack.
     
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