indirect pronoun - alquilar(le) a Juan el apartamento


Is this sentence correct in spanish:

María quiere alquilar a Juan el apartamento.

María le quiere alquilar a Juan el apartamento.

the difference between 2 sentences is that there is no "le" in the first sentence.
I know that the second sentence is correct.but is the first sentence correct too?

I didn't write "le" in the first sentence because the second sentence seemed very long to me.Instead of "le" and "a Juan" can we say directly "a Juan" without "le" as shown in the first sentence??

thanks in advance
  • blasita

    Senior Member
    Spain. Left six years ago

    Yes, in my opinion, you can write the sentence without 'le'; it's optional in this case. Both sentences are correct.

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