Is/has been universal?

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nomnom27

Senior Member
Castellano
I read this article and this sentence caught my eye.
"Praise for Murray’s evaluating skills has been universal."

Instead of has been, should it be is?

Link:
http://www.buffalonews.com/sports/sabres-nhl/colleagues-call-sabres-gm-candidate-murray-a-hockey-man-20140108
 
Last edited:
  • JamesM

    Senior Member
    Probably not. The praise has come from various places and at various times. The author is making a comment on the praise that has occurred over time, even if it's a short time period.
     

    ALEX1981X

    Banned
    Italian
    So does that mean that the praise is continuous or has it stopped?
    To me it means that ithe event/action is "completed" in the past but it could be that it may still happen again in the next future. We cannot be sure
    Somehow the event is linked to the present.

    If the writer intended to convey "finished" and "over", he/she would have had to use a simple past tense in my opinion.
     

    nomnom27

    Senior Member
    Castellano
    To me it means that ithe event/action is "completed" in the past but it could be that it may still happen again in the next future. We cannot be sure
    Somehow the event is linked to the present.

    If the writer intended to convey "finished" and "over", he/she would have had to use a simple past tense in my opinion.
    Something like ""Praise for Murray’s evaluating skills was universal."?
     

    nomnom27

    Senior Member
    Castellano
    I need confirmation from a native please? :eek: Ha-ha, but I think you're confirmation is right ALEX1981
     

    nomnom27

    Senior Member
    Castellano
    Last question. If Murray were getting praises currently it would be "Praise for Murray’s evaluating skills is universal," right?

    If not, is there any examples where someone would use is universal?
     
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