Is the Hebrew-Welsh connection more than a myth?

clevermizo

Senior Member
English (USA), Spanish
The problem is that when you are using the standard roman alphabet, whether as a transliteration or transcription, the graphemes may have different values for different languages and according to the orthography used to write the language used by the person making the transliteration or transcription. Further, you may be comparing a transliteration or transcription with an etymological orthography.

As an example, <ll> has different values in the orthographies used to write English, Welsh, Spanish and Italian. Not only that but the sound represented by <ll> in writing Spanish is represented by <lh> in Portuguese and by <gl> in Italian. That means that looking at what is on the page you can see similarities which in fact only exist in writing and may miss cognates because they are not apparent from writing. And that is when looking at languages which have been written in roman script for centuries. When you start comparing such languages (and remember some have orthographies more etymological than others) with transliterations or transcriptions of languages traditionally written in other scripts the possibility of being misled multiplies.

Equally, orthography may be a reliable guide. Despite the fact that <g> before <i> represents different sounds in English, French, Spanish and Italian we know that <religion> (English and French) <religión> (Spanish) and <religione> (Italian) are "all the same word" - the <g> has in all cases been carried forward from Latin <religio> (with in fact yet another values for <g>).

I was hasty. Transliteration as a technique can be of course how you can compare different languages, I was mostly reacting to basically everything you wrote in this post.
 
  • Hulalessar

    Senior Member
    English - England
    I was hasty. Transliteration as a technique can be of course how you can compare different languages, I was mostly reacting to basically everything you wrote in this post.

    Presumably when you say "you" you do not mean "me" as I do not think you were responding to anything I said. In fact I was rather agreeing with you. I have made a slight to change to my last post to make that clear.
     

    clevermizo

    Senior Member
    English (USA), Spanish
    Presumably when you say "you" you do not mean "me" as I do not think you were responding to anything I said. In fact I was rather agreeing with you. I have made a slight to change to my last post to make that clear.

    Yes we are agreed entirely. :) I of course meant you as in you, but I meant in reaction to exactly the phenomena you cite, which is what prompted me to state a little too confidently that "transliteration is not such and such." I've also bolded the part above in my post 'unless everyone is using the same well-defined system​' for clarity.
     

    berndf

    Moderator
    German (Germany)
    Moderator note: Above, Arielipi used <kh> to transcribe /ħ/ and <ch> to transcribe /x/~/χ/. This does not correspond to normal usage but since we know it now we can live with it. But please, Arielipi, in the future try to use more conventional transcriptions to avoid such confusions.;) Here or here, e.g. are very handy tools for IPA symbols.
     

    Roel~

    Member
    Nederlands - Nederland
    If we examine a possible Semitic substratum hypothesis in Celtic languages, we have of course to do the comparison with the development stage of the language when this influence should allegedly have take place. Allophonic distribution of beth and veth in the 8th century AD, the time when the Masoretic punctuation system was finalized, is not necessarily relevant. After all we know, allophonic spirantization of plosives (beth-vet, gimel-ghimel, daleth-dhaleth, koph-khoph, peh-pheh, taw-thaw) happened in post-exile times and would probably not be relevant. But for that we would need a more precise theory of how, where and when the influence should have taken place.

    It should also be noted that fantasies of nutters like those Brit-Am people based on amateurish 17th centuries comparisons long before the methodology of historical comparative was developed, can hardly be taken seriously. Modern attempts to unveil an alleged Semitic substratum in Celtic languages, notably the works of Vennemann (see the link provided by Hulalessar in #4), postulate Semitic influence on Celtic to have taken place via Punic and not via Hebrew. Both are Canaanitic languages but Punic never developed the beth-veth distinction.

    I think this might be something. Obviously from what I 've understood the Welsh-Hebrew connection seems to be an urban-myth. I just wanted it to be confirmed because it's possible that people were faking it, as seems to be with the Hebrew bible phrases according to some users here and you also have the following case:

    For example, you have two languages (I make these phrases up)

    Awwa draama = He is here (language A)
    Owwo droomu = He is here (language B)

    It is possible that they match and are likely related:

    Awwa (he) draama (here) = He is here (language A)
    Owwo (he) droomu (here) = He is here (language B)

    But this isn't the only possiblity.

    Although they have the same meaning, you could have the following case:

    Awwa (he) draama (here) = He is here (language A)
    Owwo (here) droomu (he) = He is here (language B)

    I wondered if this might be the case here. Is it possible that those Medieval writers confused similar sounding phrases, without looking at and comparing the words, if the words themselves were similar too, while only the phrases may have looked similar?

    This seems to be debunked anyway, but what stays is the theory of Venneman.

    Now what I wonder about is, how big is the chance that Vennemans theory is right? Because I think that it's very well possible that the Gaelic languages origin from the Middle-East, when you look at the sounds and the way how it is written (with a lot of consonants for instance). I just wonder if there is any scientific proof for this because I don't know this.
     

    Hulalessar

    Senior Member
    English - England
    Because I think that it's very well possible that the Gaelic languages origin from the Middle-East, when you look at the sounds and the way how it is written (with a lot of consonants for instance).

    The way Welsh is written is a bit deceptive because it has a lot of digraphs representing single sounds:

    ch, dd, ff, ng, ll, ph, rh, th,

    The digraphs may appear at the beginning of a word or together giving the impression of consonant clusters more complex than is the case. Further, <w> and <y> are regularly used as vowels.

    I have taken a Welsh sentence at random:

    Serch hynny, mae llawer o siaradwyr Cymraeg iaith gyntaf yn llawer mwy cyffyrddus yn mynegi eu hunain drwy gyfrwng y Gymraeg na'r Saesneg.

    If the second half of each digraph is taken away and <w> and <y> (where vowels) are replaced by <u> and <i> you get:

    Serc hinni, mae lawer o siaraduir Cimraeg iait gintaf in lawer mui cifirdus in minegi eu hunain drui gifrun y Gimraeg na'r Saesneg

    That gives a far better idea of how many consonant sounds there are and you can see that there are in fact far fewer consonant clusters than appears at first sight from the original.
     
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    Stoggler

    Senior Member
    English (Southern England)
    What is Welsh called in Welsh then?

    As Pedro y La Torre said, the Welsh name for Welsh is Cymraeg - perhaps you were confused with Gaelic because Cymraeg is sometimes written with an initial G (i.e. as Gymraeg (due to initial consonant mutation - a grammatical feature found in all the modern-day Celtic languages).

    Although related to Irish and Scottish Gaelic (and Manx) as part of the overarching Celtic language family, Welsh is part of the Brythonic or P-Celtic branch (along with Cornish and Breton) and the Gaelic langauges are part of the Goidelic or Q-Celtic branch; Welsh is not mutually intelligible with Gaelic languages.

    These should help:

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brythonic_languages
    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Goidelic
     

    Tegs

    Mód ar líne
    English (Ireland)
    The way Welsh is written is a bit deceptive because it has a lot of digraphs representing single sounds:

    ch, dd, ff, ng, ll, ph, rh, th,

    The digraphs may appear at the beginning of a word or together giving the impression of consonant clusters more complex than is the case. Further, <w> and <y> are regularly used as vowels.

    Exactly. W and Y are vowels in Welsh, so Welsh is only full of consonants if you are not aware of this fundamental feature of the language.

    Cymraeg = the Welsh word for "Welsh"
    Gaeilge = the Irish word for "Irish"
    Gàidhlig = the Scottish Gaelic word for "Scottish Gaelic"

    When you talk about Gaelic, you are either refering to the language of Scotland or that of Ireland, but never the language of Wales.

    PS As far as I know, there is no link between Hebrew and either Irish or Welsh, grammatically or otherwise. There are, however, links between the grammar of Welsh and Irish (and other Celtic languages). This thread is the first I've heard that there's even a myth that Welsh is related to Hebrew!!
     

    Roel~

    Member
    Nederlands - Nederland
    Exactly. W and Y are vowels in Welsh, so Welsh is only full of consonants if you are not aware of this fundamental feature of the language.

    Cymraeg = the Welsh word for "Welsh"
    Gaeilge = the Irish word for "Irish"
    Gàidhlig = the Scottish Gaelic word for "Scottish Gaelic"

    When you talk about Gaelic, you are either refering to the language of Scotland or that of Ireland, but never the language of Wales.

    PS As far as I know, there is no link between Hebrew and either Irish or Welsh, grammatically or otherwise. There are, however, links between the grammar of Welsh and Irish (and other Celtic languages). This thread is the first I've heard that there's even a myth that Welsh is related to Hebrew!!

    I was rather surprised too that there were theories about it.
     

    Sugarsail1

    New Member
    English - United States
    I've been studying the Carthaginian Phoenicians lately. There is not a whole lot of info on them as they were sacked by the Romans about 148 BC, and since history is written by the winners there is mostly only circumstantial evidence through Greek and Roman translators and stories. BUT it seems that the Irish and Welsh Celtic dialects were likely heavily influenced by Punic speaking (an Afro-Semitic language similar to Hebrew) Carthaginian traders who traded for tin and copper with them anywhere between 900 BC and 200BC. My conjecture is that once Carthage was finally wiped out by the Romans in 148 BC, the Punic speaking refugees fled to as far away from the Romans as they could get in the known world which would be the British Isles and intermingled with the population who had been trading partners for quite a long time by then.
     

    WestFevalia

    Senior Member
    French - France
    Concerning Venneman's theory (which is both very interesting and very controversial). One of his arguments is the use of Internal Possessor Construction vs the use of External Possessor Construction (let's call them IPC and EPC).
    Most Indo-European languages spoken in Europe use EPC:
    French fermer les yeux
    Italian chiudere gli occhi
    Spanish cerrar los ojos.
    The only exceptions are Celtic languages and English, which use IPC: I close my eyes.
    IPC is found in non-Indo-European languages (Turkish etc.) and also in Semitic languages spoken in North Africa and Middle East.
    According to Venneman, this feature passed to Celtic languages and then to Old English. I like this theory but I remember one of my teachers who told me bluntly: that's rubbish!
    Maybe there's still no evidence and never wil be :(.
    By the way, here's the link to his paper:http://www.rotary-muenchen.de/2005-2006/theo-vennemann.pdf
     

    berndf

    Moderator
    German (Germany)
    According to Venneman, this feature passed to Celtic languages and then to Old English.
    Not to Old English but to Middle English.

    Venneman's theory (as well as other attempts to re-write the history of English like this one for example) essentially stands and falls with the completely speculative diglossia hypothesis, i.e. that attested Old English was the petrified, artificial literary language of the Anglo-Saxon conquerors and that the people actually spoke a completely different language, a kind of a mixture of Anglo-Saxon, Brittonic and Old Norse (with different weights depending what people are trying to prove) and that this "true" English only started to be recorded after the Norman conquest when Old English had lost its prestige status. This would mean that Middle English did not develop out of late Old English but split from early Old English, practically immediately after the Anglo-Saxon conquest, and that all the features where Middle English differs from Old English developed many centuries before the Norman conquest.
     

    Gwrhyd

    New Member
    Cymraeg + English Wales
    To say that Scots\ Irish Gaelic is completely unintelligible to Brythonic speakers is slightly overstating the case. We have a massive amount in common but research is slightly skewed because both language groups have different alphabets( though both use Latin characters) and much of the research I have read has been done by English speakers who struggle to pronounce basic modern welsh(cymraeg). For example many struggle to pronounce the ll sound. When I got my head around the Irish alphabet I found that the differences were far smaller than I'd first believed. Add to that the academic distinction between "P" and "C" godeilic and the consistency implied there in and a theoretical monoglot welsh speaker with knowledge of this distinction would be able to understand 50 to 70 percent of Irish.

    An example of this would be Mac and mab. Mac will be familiar to many as "son of". Mab or map in cymraeg is the same and is shortened to ab or ap. Hence many familiar welsh surnames like price (ap Rhys spelled badly by an English speaking clerk), probert, Pritchard, Bowen, Beynon, were misunderstandings.

    I can't speak to the accuracy of the ops source material but there is a certain familiarity in the Semitic languages and the way they sound. There is also the ibn and Ben which correlate with Mac and map. There is also a theory that cymraeg is Celtic vocabulary superimposed on a speech pattern seen in Basque. The genetics lend some credence to this theory.
     

    JB1957

    New Member
    English
    The word for milk in Welsh is Llaeth in Hebrew Halav in Arabic Halib. Can this possibly be a coincidence?
     

    JB1957

    New Member
    English
    What should be a coincident? Where do you see a similarity between llaeth and חלב. I am lost.
    To my ear they sound very similar, and to the best of my knowledge no other language, other than Arabic, comes even close.
     

    JB1957

    New Member
    English
    My recollection of the Welsh pronunciation is that ll sounds a lot like a חל not the pronunciation I hear from the link you sent
     

    berndf

    Moderator
    German (Germany)
    The sound represented by ll in Welsh has nothing in it that is even close to ח, which is a guttural sound; in both, modern and ancient Hebrew. The sound Welch ll has absolutely no guttural component. Apart from that, ll is one single sound and חל in חלב are two separate sounds belonging to separate syllables.
     
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    JB1957

    New Member
    English
    The sound represented by ll in Welsh has nothing in it that is even close to ח, which is a guttural sound; in both, modern and ancient Hebrew. The sound Welch ll has absolutely no guttural component. Apart from that, ll is one single sound and חל in חלב are two separate sounds belonging to separate syllables.
    Thanks, Are there no guttural sounds in Welsh? I wrongly remembered ll as guttural
     

    Zec

    Senior Member
    Croatian
    @ llaeth : it doesn't have to be a proto- or early French loan, it can simply be a Latin loan. The development of [kt] is very similar in both French and Welsh: in the relevant position [k] ends up as [i̯] in both languages, the difference is that in French [t] stays the same while in Welsh it is lenited to [θ]. This happens in inherited words as well, for example in this one.
     

    berndf

    Moderator
    German (Germany)
    True, the reduction of kt to t is not particular to French. I thought mainly because of the diphthongization of a. But for the argument here it doesn't really matter how it was derived from VL.
     

    Welsh_Sion

    Senior Member
    Welsh - Northern
    Native speaker of Cymraeg here.

    My summary:

    1) Cymraeg/Welsh is a P Celtic Brittonic/Brythonic language and a 'sister' to Kerenewek/Cornish and Brezhoneg/Breton. We may be able to know common, basic words between us (and share the same national anthem), but would have difficulties going beyond such basics.

    2) Cymraeg is therefore a cousin language to the three Goidelic/Gaelic languages (Q Celtic) of Gaeligue/Irish, Gàidhlig/Scottish Gaelic and Gaelg/Manx. Whilst philologists can draw attention to the P/Q 'similarities' (e.g. 'pedwar'/'cethair' '4', 'pump'/'coic' '5' in Cymraeg/Gaeligue) between us, I would have extreme difficulty in conversing with an inhabitant of Gallimh (and she with me).

    3) Any connection between Cymraeg and Hebrew linguistically and historically must be spurious. Yes, we both prefer verb initial sentences and also inflect some prepositions (Celtic languages are unique in this in I-E; Semitic languages are also somewhat of a rarity in doing so), but this must surely be a coincidence. Those who postulate a common Central Europe/Middle Eastern link to Cymraeg and Hebrew will have to reconcile that fact with latest thinking on Celtic origins on the Western Atlantic seaboard of Europe (see, e.g. Koch)

    4) It was fashionable at one stage (mid-19th century to allege the 'Cymro's' true origin was 'Cape Comorin' at the extremity of India. This theory has subsequently been successfully debunked.

    5) We do look enviously at the growth of the Ulpan movement in Israel post-independence and the revitalisation of Hebrew in that country. Efforts to replicate that in Cymru (via the Wlpan system - name which reflected more than a passing nod to the Ulpanim) have met with some degree of success.

    6) Many Cymry have long held the view we are one of the lost tribes of Israel and the ancestor was Gomer. For what is Gomer but a variant of 'Cymro'? Fortunately, again, we can dismiss this as pure myth.

    7) Traditionally very religious (less so today), the Welsh incorporated many 'Israeli' names to their non-comformist places of worship (e.g. many chapels were called Seion, Bosrah, Ebenezer and so forth.) Similarly, place names were adopted wholesale or 'Cymricised' - Nebo, Bethesda (< Beth-saida), Nasareth, Caesarea Philpi. To this day, even secularists like to receive or send Christmas cards franked by the post office in the little Welsh village of Bethlehem. None of this indicates any language connection with those of 'the Promised Land'.

    8) Leading on from this religiosity is the maintained myth of Cymraeg being the 'language of heaven'. Praise the Lord we did - and that in vast numbers and in our mother tongue. English may have been the language of trade, commerce, justice and education for centuries, but the Almighty still understood the common (often monolingual) Cymro/Cymraes when they invoked their prayers in Cymraeg - and that so fervently and dramatically as any latter-day evangelist, whilst condemning those not adhering to the true Calvinistic Methodist faith that they would surely go to Hell. Again, this does not prove any sort of linguistic connection between the Cymry and speakers of Hebrew.

    That's my understanding, anyway. I'm only a native speaker professional linguist of Cymraeg. I await any feedback on the above with interest.
     
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    calin balint

    New Member
    english
    Only reason why I’m here it’s because Ive seen welsh pantagonia documentary , I heard them speak their language , and I thought they speak Hebrew ,lol
     

    raamez

    Senior Member
    Arabic (Syria)
    The answer is probably no. Nonetheless I find the similarities quite intriguing. Here is a video I watched the otherday and found very interesing.
     

    Wandering Tree

    New Member
    English
    I read about a supposed connection between Hebrew and Welsh. It looks like a myth from Christians, but when I listened to Gaelic, it very much reminded me of Hebrew, of which I know the sounds very well too. Certain things which were said, were said in a similar way as they were said in Hebrew. The thing is that Gaelic is an Indo-European languages and that Hebrew is an Afro-Semitic language. So, how could they even be related? Well, it's possible for languages to undergo such a big influence of other languages that their language group can change, a good example is Japanese, which is an isolated language. Where as it might possible have been part of the Altaic group at first, it might have merged with other languages in the area so much that it became an isolated language, which it officially is. Though, it's just a theory and linguists aren't sure if Japanese has been part of the Altaic group, some linguists even classify Japanese under the Altaic language group. The point is, Japanese became an isolated language, which shows that languages evolve.

    It might be possible that Gaelic and the other celtic languages were once part of the Afro-Semitic group, but underwent such a big influence of European languages that they became Indo-European, well, the Indo-European classification. Although you wouldn't expect it, there seems to be support for this theory. What I could find is the following, and it would be good if people here were able to verify this information. In the information, it is claimed that the Irish are one of the lost tribes of Israel, although I 'm interested in Hebrew because of it's special position as an Afro-Semitic language which is revived, I 'm agnostic and I don't know enough about christianity to say anything about this.

    Source: Hebrew English

    A writer who signed his name "Glas" submitted a list of Welsh words with Hebrew origins in 1832 . The writer remarked that, "But the best proof of the Eastern descent of the ancient British is the close resemblance and connection existing between the Welsh and Hebrew languages, even at this day. As a proof of this we have extracted the following vocabulary of words in both tongues, so closely resembling each other in sound and sense as to leave no doubt whatever on the subject.
    Many of these words, it will be found, have been transmitted from the Welsh, through the Anglo-Saxon into our modern English. It would be easy to swell their number..

    Some of the examples adduced by the above writer were:

    Aeth: He went, he is gone; hence = Athah
    Aml: Plentiful, ample = Hamale
    Ydom: the earth = Adamah
    Awye: air, sky = auor, or
    bu: it came to pass = bo boten, or potten : belly = beten.
    brith: bright = barud
    cas: hatred = caas (anger).
    dafnu: to drop, or distill by drops = nataph, taph.


    In 1675 Charles Edwards ("Hanes y Fydd") published A number of Welsh Cambro-Brittanic Hebraisms in which he shows that whole phrases in Welsh can be closely paralleled by whole phrases in Hebrew.

    From the list of Charles Edwards, L.G.A. Roberts (1919) made a selection and we have selected examples from Roberts after slightly modernising the Hebrew transliterations : It should be noted that when account is taken for likely and known dialectical changes of pronounciation the examples given in effect show identical Welsh parallel phrases for the Hebrew original.

    In Welsh: Gael hedd (Gen.31;47) meaning Geledd i.e. heap of testimony= in Hebrew : Galaed.

    In Welsh: Bagad meaning "A troop cometh ?" (Gen.30;11) = in Hebrew

    In Welsh : Anudon meaning "Without God" = in Hebrew: Aen Adon.

    In Welsh : Yni all sy dda meaning "I am the Almighty God" (Gen. 17;1) = in Hebrew: Ani El Saddai.

    In Welsh : Llai iachu yngwyddd achau ni meaning "Let him not live before our brethren" (Gen. 31;32) = in Hebrew Loa yichei neged acheinu (Gen.31;32).

    In Welsh Ochoren ballodddi hoc-dena meaning "After I am waxed old shall I have pleasure?" = in Hebrew : Acharei belothi hedenah (Gen.18;12).

    In Welsh Bebroch fra am beneu ach ef, dyfet Deborah mam ianceth Ribecah meaning "When he fled from the face of his brother . But Deborah Rebecca's nurse died" (Gen. 35;7-8) = in Hebrew : Beborcho mpnei achiv vetamath Deborah mayneceth Ribecah.

    In Welsh: Yngan Job yscoli yscoli cynghaws i (Job 6;1,2) meaning "Job answered, O that my grief were thoroughly weighed" = in Hebrew: Veya(g)n Eyub ....shocol yishocal ca(g)si

    In Welsh: Amelhau bytheu chwi a bythau holl ufyddau chwi meaning "And they shall fill your house and the houses of all your servants" (Gen. 10;6) = in Hebrew: Umalu bathechoh and bathei col avedochoh.

    In Welsh Iachadd ni meaning "Thou hast healed me" = in Hebrew: hechiyatni.

    In Welsh Nesa awyr peneu chwi meaning "Lif thou up the light of thy countenance" = in Hebrew: nasa aor panechoh.(Psalms 4;6.).

    In Welsh An annos meaning "None did compel" = in Hebrew: ain ones. (Esther 1;8).

    In Welsh As chwimwth meaning "an angry man" = in Hebrew: ish chamas (Psalms 140;12 Proverbs 16;29 meaning a wickedly-violent man).

    In Welsh Be heulo, luerferfo (Job 6;4) meaning "When his candle shined ..... and by his light.." = in Hebrew: behilo, leoroe.

    In Welsh Bwgythieu in gwarchaeni (Job 6;4) meaning "The terrors of God set themselves in array against me = in Hebrew: Biu(g)thi elohai ya-a(g)rchuni.

    In Welsh I far meaning "Shall be cursed" = Hebrew : Yu-ar, yuv-ar. (Numbers 22;6).

    In Welsh Am geryddo fo meaning "At his reproof" = in Hebrew :im ge-arato.



    Of course, I tried to verify this information. This is hard, because this is medieval Gaelic, but in the development from a medieval to a modern language, there are still words who are similar or remained

    Reproof = cerydd, in modern Welsh. This seems related to geryddo and this means that it might be possible that it isn't made up.

    Hast healed = iachaodd Medieval Welsh = Iachadd

    I used a dictionary to try and look and I did this just to look if this was nonsense or not, but now I wonder if there is any truth in this theory, because the grammar looks similar too.

    Is there anyone here who knows anything about this and is able to verify this, because this would shed a new light onto these languages.
    I am interested in language and I notice that some Welsh words have only w's and y's, in other words, few vowels or no common vowels. Hebrew doesn't use vowels except nikkud. The more I learn about language the more similarities I see and sometimes hear between languages. Whether all the continents came together once or four or five times in the Earth's history people would have crossed those boundaries or borders. People have been exploring for all of Earth's history.
     

    Glasguensis

    Signal Modulation
    English - Scotland
    W and Y are vowels in Welsh. In any case Hebrew does have vowels, it is a question of whether they are included in the written form. Welsh does not have its own script.
     

    Welsh_Sion

    Senior Member
    Welsh - Northern
    I am interested in language and I notice that some Welsh words have only w's and y's, in other words, few vowels or no common vowels.

    ________

    As Glasguensis says: 'w' and 'y' are vowels for us, and they can also carry diacritics. So, in fact, there are more vowels than English, as a, e, i, o, u are also vowels.
     

    Awwal12

    Senior Member
    Russian
    Stating that "w's and y's are vowels for us" is, I'm afraid, pretty meaningless unless one specifies *what* those y's and w's actually *are*. The Wikipedia article on Welsh orthography (!) say that "w" letter can correspond to three different phonemes (/w/, /ʊ/ and /u:/), among which, obviously, only two are vowels (that being said, positional alterations between vowels and semivowel consonants aren't uncommon cross-linguistically, and in the case of Welsh their nature may be additionally obscured by the traditional orthography). "Y", indeed, seems to be a pure vowel letter in Welsh (as /j/ can be represented only by "i" and not by "y" - essentially it works in the way opposite to how it works in English).
     

    berndf

    Moderator
    German (Germany)
    I cannot so anything wrong or misleading in "W and Y are vowels in Welsh" in the given context, i.e. as an answer to a contributions that suggests that Welch has vowelless words.
     

    Awwal12

    Senior Member
    Russian
    I cannot so anything wrong or misleading in "W and Y are vowels in Welsh" in the given context
    Probably, it's just the way it has been put doesn't personally look sufficiently clear to me. :)
    I'd just say that "y" is a vowel letter in Welsh and "w" often represents a vowel as well.
     

    Ben Jamin

    Senior Member
    Polish
    Honestly, this theory is crazy. It's surprising that it keeps cropping up.
    I can recommend you to listen to a vlog in Langfocus series (accessoble on Youtube), about Semitic an Celtic connection. Nothing is proven in this lecture, but many interesting clues are given. So I would not ridicule the question so easy.
     

    Welsh_Sion

    Senior Member
    Welsh - Northern
    Both @berndf and @Awwal12 are correct - in particular, I was answering the comment quickly as I have insufficient time to go into the detail. Thankfully, you have, although, more details on the actual phonemes would be necessary if we were going into such detail.

    It's a frequent jibe - mostly by native English speakers - that Welsh has no vowels, when they reveal their ignorance in not knowing/accepting that 'w' and 'y' are (in the appropriate contexts). That was my 'simple' response, anything else is extra (in particular, when our audience are trained linguists. Incidentally, <i> is also on occasion the semi-vowel/semi-consonant /j/ as well as /I/ and /i:/ when applicable.
     

    Abaye

    Senior Member
    Hebrew
    5) We do look enviously at the growth of the Ulpan movement in Israel post-independence and the revitalisation of Hebrew in that country.
    Ulpan is actually an Aramaic word we've borrowed :cool:

    6) Many Cymry have long held the view we are one of the lost tribes of Israel and the ancestor was Gomer. For what is Gomer but a variant of 'Cymro'?
    You're warmly welcome back home, o lost brethren.

    7) Traditionally very religious (less so today), the Welsh incorporated many 'Israeli' names to their non-comformist places of worship
    Clint Eastwood was the mayor of Carmel, Israilov is a good Chechen name.

    8) Leading on from this religiosity is the maintained myth of Cymraeg being the 'language of heaven'.
    So is Hebrew, of course.


    Now seriously: when is the possible time for Welsh-Hebrew relations?
    • If before 1000 BC, there was hardly Hebrew language distinct of other Canaanite dialects.
    • If between 1000 BC and 100 AD, Hebrews were not seafarers or travelers like our Phoenician neighbours, so couldn't easily reach whatever far land the Welsh dwelled at. Our king Solomon had reached remote lands in the 10 century BC, but to the south via the Red Sea, not to the west. Or are the Welsh supposed to have dwelt in the middle east at this time? Then where are the traces?
    • If later, after the Jews were exiled by the Romans from their homeland, then this is the nearly the same time that Romans conquered Wales. A significant Hebrew migration or cultural influence would not be left undocumented. And anyway, at this time we spoke mainly Aramaic, not Hebrew.
     
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    Awwal12

    Senior Member
    Russian
    Israilov is a good Chechen name
    Just a Muslim surname anywhere inside the Russian sphere of surname models, though, of course, its popularity may vary. From Israil (إِسْرَآئِیل), the Arabic version of the name Israel. The Wikipedia articles are mostly about Chechens and Kyrgyz.
     
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