A lot of etymology dictionaries state that the word Arian/Aryan is derived directly from the Skr. arya. What I don't get is why linguists would use a term like Aryan to refer to both the Iranians and the Indians unless the word Aryan was really derived from the reconstructed Proto-Indo-Iranian form *arya, the common ancestor of both the Iranians and Indians. This is an abridged history of the word Arian/Aryan as I know it. Wikipedia says the history of Arian as a loanword began in the 18th century where Arian/Aryan is derived from Skr. aria. But the word Arian was first used in the west when it is substituted for the Iranic place-name Ariana in Holland's translation of Pliny's Natural History in 1601. In 1807 the form Arya is used to designate the Indians. (Sir William Jones, The works of Sir William Jones pg. 243) I can't find any sources that uses the form Arian in reference to the Indians until 1844, but by then the word is used to designate the Proto-Indo-Iranians or common ancestors of both the Indians and the Iranians. This appears to be because Prichard had assumed that the Bactrians and Iranians called themselves Aria (probably really related to Herat) and the Brahmans used the form Aria (Arya). (James Cowles Prichard, Researches Into the Physical History of Mankid, Vol. 4 pg. 33) Subsequently the form Arian is used exclusively in reference to the Iranians by in 1847 (Karl Otfried Müller Trans. John Leitch, Ancient art and its remains: or a manual of the archaeology of art pg. 219) and 1850 (Professor F. Bopp Trans. Lieutenant Eastwick, M.R.A.S., A comparative Grammar of the Sanskrit, Zend, Greek, Latin, Lithuanian, Gothic, German, and Sclavonic Languages pg. 1215 uses Arian in reference to the Iranians). In 1857 the form Arian is used to designate the Indians, Iranians, and Indo-Europeans. But up until this time the word Arian/Aryan is not used exclusively for the Indians. The only term that is used exclusively for the Indians is Arya. So what is the possibility that the etymologists are basically just saying that the form Arian derives from Skr. arya because that's how we know the Proto-Indo-Iranian *arya (which is really where the from Arian derives) was used for the common ancestors of the Indians and Iranians?