Is this "me" accusative?

cheshire

Senior Member
Japanese
(1) Do you think this usage that a pronoun after a verb in a sentence becomes the accusative case, instead of the nominative case with all the rest of the nouns?

ex. It's me[accusative]. (cf. It's a cat[nominative].)

(2) Is the "me" an accuative case in the first place?

(3) Is the usage an influence from French? Did the usage exist before the Norman Conquest?
 
  • Padraig

    Senior Member
    Hiberno-English, Irish Gaelic
    Although It is me or It's me is often said, it is arguably incorrect. Is is a copula, and should be preceded and followed by the nominative case: It is I.
     

    Matching Mole

    Senior Member
    England, English
    The "rule" is that whatever follows the a copula should have the same case as that which precedes it. So in this case it should be "I", the nominative. However, no reasonable authority now expects this rule to be followed in a spoken phrase such as "It is I/me". Even Fowler says the lapse is of no importance, since the phrase is colloquial to begin with.

    "Me" is the accusative is it not? It's "misused" in phrases like this, but I hardly think we can start calling "me" the nominative (or anything else) on that account.

    The French influence on this phrase is disputed; I think the answer to that is unknowable. However, I don't know for sure that it existed before the 11th C.; I suspect that there isn't any evidence of it. Apparently it is not an error in French, but a mood called the disjunctive.
     
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