Is Walter Bellow Reliable

Discussion in 'Etymology, History of languages, and Linguistics (EHL)' started by mojobadshah, Apr 15, 2014.

  1. mojobadshah Senior Member

  2. Wolverine9 Senior Member

    American English
    Not much is known about the Pashtuns in pre-Islamic times. However, they are an Iranian speaking group. Therefore, it is reasonable to conclude that most of their tribal names probably would've reflected this.
  3. mojobadshah Senior Member

    What about Rajput and Greek names?
  4. Wolverine9 Senior Member

    American English
    It's unknown whether there was Indian or Greek influence in their names.
  5. Wolverine9 Senior Member

    American English
    Also read this Iranica article, especially part A. The words "Pashto" and "Persian" may have the same etymological origin.

  6. mojobadshah Senior Member

    Yes *Parsu and Parthian cf. Skr. parsava "rib" but ultimately rooted in a form denoting border peoples (prob. also Pharisee "seperatist").

    Is there any people in the Avesta or Vedas related to the Irano-Afghan Pashtunwal tribe name Isapzai "son of the equestrian" cf. Afghan?
  7. Wolverine9 Senior Member

    American English
    There are no such people in either text.
  8. mojobadshah Senior Member

    Im pretty sure Parthia is mentioned in the Avesta which is akin to the epyonym Pashtun. Are there any other cognates of these forms in the Avesta?
  9. Wolverine9 Senior Member

    American English
    Parthia is from Old Persian Parθava; it's not attested in the Avesta.
  10. mojobadshah Senior Member

    Is the etymology tieing Pouruta in Yasht 4.14 to the Parthians and the fact that the Parthians are tied to the Dahi countries in Farvardin Yasht 30.143-144 outdated?
    Last edited: Apr 23, 2014
  11. Wolverine9 Senior Member

    American English
    Yes, it most likely is. Old Iranian *parsu and pouruta are probably not connected. This article discusses pouruta. Ishkata
  12. mojobadshah Senior Member

    If the Parsyetae (Av. Pouruta cf. Parsi) are the ancestors of the Afghans are these the Pashtuns?
  13. Treaty Senior Member

    The thread is going off topic and beyond the purpose of this forum. You'd better ask the connection between the terms Parsyetae and Pashtuns in a new thread.

    As for your original question, seemingly Bellow confused Herodotus' description of Greece and western Anatolia (satrapies 1 and 2) with modern Afghanistan, and so came with this Greek-Pashtun connection. He also had very low regard towards Arabs, typical of his era, that downplayed the role of Arabic names in Muslim communities; considering them a shallow pronunciation change imposed by "jealous" and "historically empty" Arabs. In addition, he was not much aware of post-Alexandrian history of the region, an issue which further contributed to some of his unfounded assumptions.

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