It sold for a higher price than had ever been paid for a Cézanne before.

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JungKim

Senior Member
Korean
The Cambridge Grammar of the English Language (Page 1102) has this example:
It sold for a higher price than had ever been paid for a Cézanne before.
I think "it" here is a Cézanne.

How about rewriting it as follows?
(1) It sold for a higher price than a Cézanne had ever sold for before.
(2) It sold for a higher price than a Cézanne had ever sold before.
(3) It sold for a higher price than a Cézanne ever had before.
 
Last edited:
  • Egmont

    Senior Member
    English - U.S.
    First, there's no apostrophe in the name of the painter Cezanne. There should be an acute accent on the first "e," Cézanne. If you can't create accented letters, it's better to write it without anything.

    With that change, sentences (1) and (3) are both correct. Sentence (2) is not: it means that a Cézanne - a painting - sold something. That's impossible.
     

    JungKim

    Senior Member
    Korean
    First, there's no apostrophe in the name of the painter Cezanne. There should be an acute accent on the first "e," Cézanne. If you can't create accented letters, it's better to write it without anything.
    Thanks. I've edited the letter.

    With that change, sentences (1) and (3) are both correct. Sentence (2) is not: it means that a Cézanne - a painting - sold something. That's impossible.
    Thanks, but I wonder if the impossible reading is the only possible reading.
    I mean, isn't the context clear about the second 'sold' in (2) being used intransitively just as the first one?
    If it's clear, isn't it easier to think of (2) as merely omitting 'for'?
     
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