it's a long time since I've seen somebody knitting

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park sang joon

Senior Member
Korean
<Source: In Azar Grammar Exchange http://thegrammarexchange.infopop.cc/eve/forums/a/tpc/f/340600179/m/6501023724>
'Weel, it's a long time since I've seen somebody knitting with four needles' said the lady who sat next to me in the main concourse at Aberdeen Royal ...

The sentence is absolutely grammatical, but I was wondering whether it is theoretically right.
Much time has passed after she saw somebody was knitting with four needles, so the fact that "I've seen somebody knitting with four needles" has nothing to with the present and don't affect the present at all. Nevertheless, why is "I've seen somebody knitting with four needles" used in present perfect tense and why is this grammatical?
What do you think about this?
I will welcome any opinion.
Thank you in advance for your help.
 
  • park sang joon

    Senior Member
    Korean
    I may see in a rough way. :)
    I can't find 'quasi-negative' on Wiki or Google.
    Is that I know 'quasi-negative' helpful in understanding the answer?
     

    RM1(SS)

    Senior Member
    English - US (Midwest)
    From the WR dictionary:

    quasi-
    combining form
    • almost but not really; seemingly: a quasi-religious cult
    • resembling but not actually being; so-called: a quasi-scholar
    Etymology: from L., lit: as if

    It's not actually a negative statement, but it resembles one.
     
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