It’s years since I rode a bike. (it’s = it is)
It’s been years since … is more common in American English than It’s years since ….It’s years since I’ve ridden a bike. (it’s = it is)
I can't speak for anybody else, but those sentences sound a little off to me. I understand what they mean, but I don't care much for your use of he's gone.Are the sentences below acceptable to native speakers?
4. Two weeks have passed since he's gone to America.
5. It's been two weeks since he's gone to America.
6. It's two weeks since he's gone to America.
According to the Cambridge Dictionaries link below, the second set seems grammatically correct, too.The first three seem perfectly normal to me. The second set doesn't.
It’s been years since I rode a bike. (it’s = it has)
It’s been years since I’ve ridden a bike. (it’s = it has)
It’s years since I rode a bike. (it’s = it is)
It’s years since I’ve ridden a bike. (it’s = it is)
It’d been years since I’d ridden a bike. (it’d = it had)
In post #9, the sentences below are acceptable, aren't they?I don't see how you can use "gone" if you specify the time the action took place. You can say "He's gone to America" (meaning that he went to America at some unspecified time in the past and remains there) but, if you specify the time, you have to use the simple past: "It's been two weeks since he went to America".