jussive of geminate verb from baab nasara

Allahuakbar1

New Member
English
Hi,

Can لا يَضُرُّ be considered a negative command?

أَيُّهَا الَّذِينَ آمَنُوا عَلَيْكُمْ أَنفُسَكُمْ ۖ لَا يَضُرُّكُم مَّن ضَلَّ إِذَا اهْتَدَيْتُمْ ۚ إِلَى اللَّهِ مَرْجِعُكُمْ جَمِيعًا فَيُنَبِّئُكُم بِمَا كُنتُمْ تَعْمَلُونَ
 
  • Abbe

    Senior Member
    Swedish
    The لا here is نافية not ناهية and the verb يضر is مرفوع not مجزوم
     

    Abbe

    Senior Member
    Swedish
    Yes you can say for example
    لم يحلل yahlil
    لم يحل yahilla
    لم يحل yahillu
     

    Ali Smith

    Senior Member
    Urdu - Pakistan
    No, if the second-last vowel is not an u, there are only three possibilities:

    lam yafirra
    lam yafirri
    lam yafrir

    All of them mean "He did not run away/flee."

    However, if the second-last vowel is an u, you have four possibilities:

    lam yamurra
    lam yamurri
    lam yamrur
    lam yamurru

    All of them mean "He did not pass."

    I might add that in MSA you will almost always hear the first one, i.e. the مجزوم form will sound just like the منصوب form in verbs whose last letter is doubled.

    "It did not continue." will almost always be لَمْ يَسْتَمِرَّ lam yastamirra in MSA.
     

    Mahaodeh

    Senior Member
    Arabic, PA and IA.
    But theoretically it could be considered مجزوم, couldn’t it?
    What do you mean by ‘theoretically’? If you mean in a different sentence then sure, if it came after أداة جازمة.

    If you mean in this particular aya then no, it’s لا النافية. We know by the meaning not only إعراب.
     

    Mahaodeh

    Senior Member
    Arabic, PA and IA.
    Because it doesn’t give an order, as simple as that. The harm that comes from others is not something we can control to be given an order about it. If it was لا الناهية the meaning would be all wrong, God would be ordering المفعول به not to perform the act. I understand that sometimes this works in different verbs (لا يخيفكم for example) but I just don’t see the meaning fitting with this verb.
     
    Last edited:

    Ali Smith

    Senior Member
    Urdu - Pakistan
    Mahaodeh: Got it. But you do agree that without context one would not be able to tell whether لَا يَضُرُّكُم was مرفوع or مجزوم, right?
     

    Ali Smith

    Senior Member
    Urdu - Pakistan
    Sometimes majzum verbs look like mansoob ones and sometimes they look like marfu' ones. For example:

    لا تفرَّ!
    لن تفرَّ

    The first is majzum and the second is mansoob.

    لم يمرُّ
    لا يمرُّ

    Here the first is majzum and the second is marfu'.
     

    Mahaodeh

    Senior Member
    Arabic, PA and IA.
    Mahaodeh: Got it. But you do agree that without context one would not be able to tell whether لَا يَضُرُّكُم was مرفوع or مجزوم, right?
    Yes and no.
    Yes because theoretically it’s possible, and no because most of the similar cases in the Quran employ فكّ الادغام so this would be the most likely, and you can also find examples using فتح وكسر but I don’t recall using ضمّ. Of course, this doesn’t change the fact that it’s possible.

    Context and meaning is half of الإعراب, if not more than half, so this is not surprising.

    But you can never have majzoom and mansoob looking the same, I think.
    إذا كان الفعل مضعّف فلا يصحّ جزمه بالسكون الظاهرة لأن هذا يؤدي إلى التقاء الساكنين. إما أن يجزم الفعل بفكّ الادغام فيصبح لا تفرر ولم تمرر، أو أن يجزم بالسكون المقدّرة وتظهر إحدى الحركات، الأغلب أن تظهر الكسرة أو الفتحة ولكن ظهور الضمة جائز أيضا.
     
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