kurs językowy

rickymut

Member
Chinese
3. Właśnie jadę do Anglii na kurs językowy.
why is "językowy" here instead of "językowego"? "językowy" is for "męskorzeczowy". right? "kurs" is not "męskorzeczowy".
 
  • Ben Jamin

    Senior Member
    Polish
    [quote wisely and trim to the relevant part]
    Kurs is masculine nonpersonal. "Kurs językowy" here is in accusative. Masculine impersonal nouns have accusative equal to nominative.
    Note: In colloquial Polish (and especially slang) this difference is disappearing. Many nouns masculine impersonal nouns are declined as if they were masculine personal, for example: "on zjadł arbuza" (he ate a watermelon).
    Maybe in a couple of years we'll also hear "jadę na kursa językowego".
     
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    rickymut

    Member
    Chinese
    thank both of you, i misunderstood it, i looked up wiktionary marking: mos/mzw językowego mrz językowy. i thought "mrz" means masculine men. i was wrong. thanks again. by the way, if the treatment become the same in future, that would be better, and helps relieve the burden of memory :)
     

    Ben Jamin

    Senior Member
    Polish
    if the treatment become the same in future, that would be better, and helps relieve the burden of memory :)
    But for a Polish speaker "jadę na kursa językowego" sounds awful. Imagine that somebody would propose to abolish the four tones in Mandarin to help foreigners to learn it easier.
     

    Lorenc

    Senior Member
    Italian
    Note: In colloquial Polish (and especially slang) this difference is disappearing. Many nouns masculine impersonal nouns are declined as if they were masculine personal, for example: "on zjadł arbuza" (he ate a watermelon).
    Maybe in a couple of years we'll also hear "jadę na kursa językowego".
    In a couple of years? I think you're exaggerating, maybe in a couple of centuries! You're referring to so-called 'facultatively animate nouns' (treated in detail, e.g., in Swans freely-available grammar of contemporary Polish) but I'm not sure there is any indication that their number or scope is increasing... what makes you think otherwise?
     

    Ben Jamin

    Senior Member
    Polish
    [quote wisely and trim to the relevant part]
    Yes, I exaggerated a bit, but there is a tendency in Polish colloquial language to replace the masculine inanimate declension pattern with the animate pattern (pisać SMS-a, zdjąć buta, etc.).
     
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    haes

    Member
    Polish - Poland
    Old topic, but funny one. This is common tendency, but a terrible one. Ultimate barbarisation of the language and once the "skasować bileta", "zjeść torta" (I have heard it!) will become the norm, it will be time to die.
     

    yezyk

    Member
    Polish
    rickymut, may I perhaps ask why you think it should be "językowego"? We can help you better if we know your line of reasoning.
    My guess is it is not because of any "męskorzeczowy" staff but perhaps you are making an analogy to "kurs niemieckiego", "kurs chińskiego", "kurs angielskiego"?
    If yes, the explanation is: "kurs chińskiego" = "kurs [kogo? czego?] chińskiego" = "kurs języka chińskiego" - it is a phrases consisting of 2 nouns, "kurs" and "język chiński". The adjective "chiński" is a sort of a mental shortcut for the noun phrase "język chiński". The noun "kurs" governs the noun "(język) chiński" and makes it assume the form "(języka) chińskiego". The 2 nouns have different cases.
    "kurs językowy", on the other hand, is a phrase consisting of 1 noun and 1 adjective, which remain in agreement as to the case.
     

    Ben Jamin

    Senior Member
    Polish
    Old topic, but funny one. This is common tendency, but a terrible one. Ultimate barbarisation of the language and once the "skasować bileta", "zjeść torta" (I have heard it!) will become the norm, it will be time to die.
    Well, it is terrible to us, but won't be to our grandchildren. Imagine a XVII century Polish speaker hearing a lady using the word "kiepski".
     
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