las mismas formaciones de relucientes minerales que viera en el laberinto. (Subjunctive)

shrinkwrap

New Member
English
The following sentence is from Isabel Allende's La Ciudad de Las Bestias:


La cueva tenía las mismas formaciones de relucientes minerales que viera en el laberinto.

My question is why is viera used instead of vio? To me, this seems like a statement of fact and would use the indicative mood. : The English translation would be: The cave had the same formations of shiny minerals that he saw in the labyrinth.

Why is viera used instead of vio (or veía if it was a repeated action?) Any help would be appreciated! Thanks!
 
  • S.V.

    Senior Member
    Español, México
    Yes, see these examples, for instance, after the 3th paragraph. It is used as había visto, what the forms in -ra meant in Latin. Sometimes it is also used as a simple past (the minerals he saw), mostly with noun + que, quien, después and desde que, as well as como in comparisons (lo hizo como lo hiciera Juan aquel día).

    It is just a dated use, like some subjunctives and inversions in English literature. :p Though newspapers like the second one (s. past).
     

    shrinkwrap

    New Member
    English
    Yes, see these examples, for instance, after the 3th paragraph. It is used as había visto, what the forms in -ra meant in Latin. Sometimes it is also used as a simple past (the minerals he saw), mostly with noun + que, quien, después and desde que, as well as como in comparisons (lo hizo como lo hiciera Juan aquel día).

    It is just a dated use, like some subjunctives and inversions in English literature. :p Though newspapers like the second one (s. past).
    Thank you so much for your reply and the examples you linked! Perhaps this dated usage fits well in the poetic magical fantasy genre of the book.
     
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