Not necessarily. As has already been noted, it depends on the context, and you have not yet provided any.So, if it is I that lost the job, then is "to me" correct?
And if it is someone other than me, then is "for me" correct?
Thanks, Wordsmyth.Not really, JungKim.
In #2, it could be you who lost the job in both cases, but the two sentences have different meanings, as Florentia explained.